Nursing

Drugs Prescription Assignment
Drugs Prescription Assignment
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Drugs Prescription Assignment
Question 1 A nurse is caring for a patient who is in severe pain and is receiving an opioid analgesic. Which of the following would be the nurse’s priority assessments?
A) Respiratory rate, seizure activity, and electrolytes
B) Pain intensity, respiratory rate, and level of consciousness
C) Liver function studies, pain intensity, and blood glucose level
D) Respiratory rate, pain intensity, and mental status
Drugs Prescription Assignment
Question 2 A nurse is caring for a patient who has been admitted with acute cocaine intoxication. Which of the following vital signs would the nurse expect to find initially when assessing the patient?
A) Blood pressure (BP): 98/50, pulse (P): 120, respirations (R): 40
B) BP: 130/88, P: 92, R: 28
C) BP: 150/90, P: 80, R: 16
D) BP: 170/98, P:110, R: 20
Question 3 A nurse is providing care for a patient who suffered extensive burns to his extremities during a recent industrial accident. Topical lidocaine gel has been ordered to be applied to the surfaces of all his burns in order to achieve adequate pain control. When considering this order, the nurse should be aware that
A) intravenous lidocaine may be preferable to topical application
B) lidocaine must be potentiated with another anesthetic in order to achieve pain control
C) pain relief is unlikely to be achieved due to the destruction of nerve endings in the burn site
D) there is a risk of systemic absorption of the lidocaine through the patient’s traumatized skin
Question 4 A patient has been prescribed zolpidem (Ambien) for short-term treatment of insomnia.Which of the following will the nurse include in a teaching plan for this patient? (Select all that apply.)
A) The drug should not be used for longer than 1 month.
B) It should be taken 1 hour to 90 minutes before going to bed
C) The drug does not cause sleepiness in the morning
D) One of the most common adverse effects of the drug is headache
E) It is available in both quick-onset and continuous-release oral forms
Question 5 A middle-aged patient was diagnosed with major depression after a suicide attempt several months ago and has failed to respond appreciably to treatment with SSRIs. As a result, his psychiatrist has prescribed phenelzine. When planning this patient’s subsequent care, what nursing diagnosis should the nurse prioritize?
A) Risk for Ineffective Peripheral Tissue Perfusion related to cardiovascular effects of phenelzine
B) Risk for Constipation related to decreased gastrointestinal peristalsis
C) Risk for Infection related to immunosuppressive effects of phenelzine
D) Risk for Injury related to drug–drug interactions or drug–nutrient interactions
Question 6 Morphine has been prescribed for a 28-year-old man with severe pain due to a back injury. The nurse will advise the patient to avoid
A) alcohol
B) vitamin C
C) fatty foods
D) dairy product
Drugs Prescription Assignment
Question 7 A 62-year-old woman has been prescribed a fentanyl transdermal patch for chronic cancer pain. The patient asks the nurse how long it will take for her to experience pain relief. The nurse will instruct the patient that she should feel pain relief in approximately
A) 6 hours
B) 12 hours
C) 24 hours
D) 32 hours
Question 8 A nurse is assigned to a patient who is taking lithium. Which of the following drug serum levels would indicate that the patient is at risk for adverse effects of the drug?
A) 0.3 mEq/L
B) 0.6 mEq/L
C) 1.7 mEq/L
D) 1.2 mEq/L
Question 9 A nurse who provides care on an acute medicine unit has frequently recommended the use of nicotine replacement gum for patients who express a willingness to quit smoking during their admission or following their discharge. For which of the following patients would nicotine gum be contraindicated?
A) A patient who received treatment for kidney failure due to an overdose of acetaminophen
B) A patient whose pulmonary embolism was treated with a heparin infusion
C) A patient with a history of angina who experienced a non-ST wave myocardial infarction
D) A patient whose stage III pressure ulcer required intravenous antibiotics and a vacuum dressing
Question 10 The wife of a patient who is taking haloperidol calls the clinic and reports that her husband has taken the first dose of the drug and it is not having a therapeutic effect. An appropriate response by the nurse would be
A) “Continue the prescribed dose. It may take several days to work.”
B) “I’ll ask the nurse practitioner if the dosage can be increased.”
C) “I’ll ask the nurse practitioner if the haloperidol can be discontinued and another drug started.”
D) “I’ll report this to the nurse practitioner and see if he will add another drug to enhance the effects of the haloperidol.”
Drugs Prescription Assignment
Question 11 A male patient has been brought to the emergency department during an episode of status epilepticus. Diazepam is to be administered intravenously. The nurse will be sure to
A) avoid the small veins in the dorsum of the hand or the wrist
B) inject the diazepam very quickly, 15 mg in 10 to15 seconds
C) administer after diluting the drug with gabapentin in intravenous solution
D) inject very slowly, no faster than 100 mg/minute
Question 12 A homeless man who is well known to care providers at the local hospital has been admitted to the emergency department after having a seizure outside a mall. The man is known to be a heavy alcohol user and is malnourished with a very low body mass index. How are this patient’s characteristics likely to influence possible treatment with phenytoin?
A) The patient will require oral phenytoin rather than intravenous administration
B) Phenytoin is contraindicated within 48 hours of alcohol use due to the possibility of paradoxical effects
C) The patient’s heavy alcohol use will compete with phenytoin for binding sites and he will require a higher-than-normal dose
D) The patient’s protein deficit will likely increase the levels of the free drug in his blood
Question 13 A patient has been admitted to the ICU because of multiple traumas due to a motor vehicle accident. The physician has ordered propofol (Diprivan) to be used for maintenance of sedation. Before administration of propofol, a priority assessment by the nurse would be to check for a history of
A) seizure disorders
B) low blood pressure
C) increased intraocular pressure
D) diabetic hyperlipidemia
Question 14 A patient who is experiencing withdrawal from heavy alcohol use have developed psychosis and been treated with haloperidol. Which of the following assessment findings should prompt the care team to assess the patient for neuroleptic malignant syndrome?
A) The patient demonstrates a significant increase in agitation after being given haloperidol
B) The patient develops muscle rigidity and a sudden, high fever
C) The patient complains of intense thirst and produces copious amounts of urine
D) The patient develops yellowed sclerae and intense pruritis (itchiness)
Question 15 A patient who has been taking buspirone (BuSpar) for 1 week calls the clinic and reports to the nurse that the drug is not working. The patient informs the nurse that she is still having symptoms of anxiety. The nurse will tell the patient that
A) she will report this to the physician immediately
B) the drug is not going to work for her and the medication needs to be changed
C) optimum relief of anxiety usually occurs after 3 to 4 weeks of treatment
D) it may take up to 6 months for the drug to relieve her anxiety
Question 16 A nurse works in a sleep disorder clinic and is responsible for administering medications to the patients. Which of the following patients would be most likely to receive zaleplon (Sonata)?
A) A 35-year-old man who is having difficulty falling asleep, but once asleep can stay asleep
B) A 20-year-old woman who will take the drug about once a week
C) A 52-year-old woman who needs to fall asleep quickly and stay asleep all night
D) A 46-year-old man who receives an antidepressant and needs a sleep aid
Question 17 A patient has a history of tonic-clonic seizures that have been successfully treated with phenytoin (Dilantin) for several years. Phenytoin achieves a therapeutic effect by
A) decreasing the influx of sodium into neurons.
B) increasing the levels of available glutamate.
C) simultaneously potentiating the effects of GABA and inhibiting reuptake.
D) by slowing the function of calcium channels within the neurological system.
Drugs Prescription Assignment
Question 18 A patient has been hospitalized for treatment of substance abuse after being arrested and jailed for the past 24 hours. The patient is experiencing severe muscle and abdominal cramps, seizures, and acute psychosis due to abrupt withdrawal. Which of the following drug classes is the most likely cause of these severe and potentially fatal withdrawal symptoms?
A) Amphetamines
B) Sedative–hypnotic drugs
C) Benzodiazepines
D) Opioids
Question 19 Which of the following would be an expected outcome in a patient who has been given atropine during a medical emergency?
A) Reduction of severe hypertension
B) Increased level of consciousness
C) Restoration of normal sinus rhythm
D) Resolution of respiratory acidosis
Question 20 A postsurgical patient has been provided with a morphine patient-controlled analgesic (PCA) but has expressed her reluctance to use it for fear of becoming addicted. How can the nurse best respond to this patient’s concerns?
A) “You don’t need to worry. It’s actually not true that you can get addicted to the medications we use in a hospital setting.”
B) “If you do become addicted, we’ll make sure to provide you with the support and resources necessary to help you with your recovery.”
C) “It’s important that you accept that your current need to control your pain is more important than fears of becoming addicted.”
D) “It is not uncommon to develop a dependence on pain medications, but this usually takes place over a long period and is not the same as addiction.”
Question 21 A nurse is talking to an 18-year-old patient who has had a seizure disorder since she was 10 years old and is taking phenytoin (Dilantin). The nurse should suggest that she take which of the following?
A) A potassium supplement
B) An iron supplement
C) Folic acid
D) Vitamin C
Question 22 Which of the following drugs used to treat anxiety would be appropriate for a patient who is a school teacher and is concerned about feeling sedated at work?
A) Alprazolam (Xanax)
B) Buspirone (BuSpar)
C) Diazepam (Valium)
D) Lorazepam (Ativan)
Question 23 A 64-year-old-patient has been prescribed lorazepam (Ativan) because of increasing periods of anxiety. The nurse should be careful to assess for
A) a diet high in fat
B) a history of current or past alcohol use
C) current nicotine use
D) a diet high in carbohydrates
Question 24 A 30-year-old woman is taking phenelzine (Nardil) 30mg PO tid. The nurse knows that at that dosage, the patient will need to be carefully monitored for
A) dizziness
B) diarrhea
C) increased secretions
D) facial flushing
Question 25 A nurse will be prepared to administer naloxone (Narcan) to a patient who has had an overdose of morphine. Repeated doses of Narcan will be necessary because Narcan
A) has less strength in each dose than do individual doses of morphine
B) has a shorter half-life than morphine
C) combined with morphine, increases the physiologic action of the morphine
D) causes the respiratory rate to decrease
Question 26 A nurse who works at an outpatient mental health clinic follows numerous clients who have schizophrenia, many of whom are being treated with olanzapine (Zyprexa). Which of the following clients likely has the highest susceptibility to the adverse effects of olanzapine?
A) A client who is morbidly obese and who has a sedentary lifestyle
B) A client who has type 1 diabetes and who practices poor glycemic control
C) A client who has a body mass index of 16.5 (underweight) and who smokes one pack of cigarettes daily
D) A client who was recently treated with intravenous antibiotics because of cellulitis in his lower leg
Question 27 A patient has been prescribed lithium therapy.Which of the following signs and symptoms will the nurse tell the patient to report immediately?
A) Increased urination
B) Muscle twitching
C) Hair loss
D) Increased thirst
Question 28 A trauma patient has been receiving frequent doses of morphine in the 6 days since his accident. This pattern of analgesic administration should prompt the nurse to carefully monitor the patient’s
A) urine specific gravity
B) skin integrity
C) bowel patterns.
D) core body temperature
Question 29 A patient with mild low back pain has been advised to take acetaminophen. The nurse will inform him that excessive intake of acetaminophen may result in
A) gastrointestinal distress
B) acute renal failure
C) cognitive deficits
D) liver damage.
Question 30 A 39-year-old patient who is having trouble sleeping is beginning drug treatment with zaleplon (Sonata). The nurse will be sure to ask the patient if she is taking
A) secobarbital (Seconal)
B) oxycodone (Percodan)
C) cimetidine (Zantac)
D) meperidine (Demerol)

Assignment: Planning a Needs Assessment
Assignment: Planning a Needs Assessment
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Discussion 1: Planning a Needs Assessment
Social workers often identify client problems that suggest the need for a new or more focused service. Rather than bemoaning the lack of resources, many social workers consider creating new services in the future. They might next imagine what an appropriate service or program would look like. This week, you generate a needs assessment plan for a program that meets an unmet need of your choice.
To prepare for this Discussion, review the examples of needs assessments presented in both of the readings. Consider the elements of a needs assessment plan that you must include in your own plan.
· Post a needs assessment plan for a potential program of your choice that meets a currently unmet need. Describe the unmet need and how current information supports your position that a needs assessment is warranted.
· Identify the sources of information that you might use when conducting a needs assessment, including potential informants.
· Explain who among these potential informants would be valuable resources and why. Identify steps for obtaining credible, unbiased information.
References (use 2 or more)
Dudley, J. R. (2014). Social work evaluation: Enhancing what we do. (2nd ed.) Chicago, IL: Lyceum Books.
· (For review) Chapter 6, “Needs Assessment” (pp. 107–142)
· Chapter 7, “Crafting Goals and Objectives” (pp. 144–164)
Discussion 2: Remaining Compassionate and Professional
As a social worker, you interact with individuals who are at various stages of change in their lives. This may become frustrating for you when clients are struggling to achieve their goals. Thus, it is important for you to develop strategies to process your experiences so that you can maintain your compassion and professionalism. As you consider the strategies you have developed to address these issues, also consider how you might help other social workers to develop such strategies. Perhaps you consulted with your supervisors when you had difficulty processing your emotions in particular situations. As you consider assuming a supervisory role, how might you apply your learning from those experiences to helping those whom you supervise?
For this Discussion, review the Levy case study in this week’s video. Consider how you, as a social worker, might address the challenge of remaining engaged with a client while not letting your emotions affect the interaction. Also, consider how you, as a supervisor, might discuss this topic with a social worker whom you supervise.
· Post a strategy that you, as the social work supervisor in the Levy case study video, might use to debrief the social worker after the session described in the video.
References (use 3 or more)
Kadushin, G., Berger, C., Gilbert, C., & de St. Aubin, M. (2009). Models and methods in hospital social work supervision. Clinical Supervisor, 28(2), 180–199.
McTighe, J. (2011). Teaching the use of self through the process of clinical supervision. Clinical Social Work Journal, 39(3), 301–307.
Laureate Education (Producer). (2014c). Sessions: Levy (Episode 5 of 42) [Video file]. Retrieved from https://class.waldenu.edu

Capstone Project Change Proposal Assignment
Capstone Project Change Proposal Assignment
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Assignment – Capstone Project Change Proposal
In this assignment, students will pull together the change proposal project components they have been working on throughout the course to create a proposal inclusive of sections for each content focus area in the course. At the conclusion of this project, the student will be able to apply evidence-based research steps and processes required as the foundation to address a clinically oriented problem or issue in future practice.
Students will develop a paper that includes the following information as it applies to the problem, issue, suggestion, initiative, or educational need profiled in the capstone change proposal:
Background
Problem statement
Purpose of the change proposal
PICOT
Literature search strategy employed
Evaluation of the literature
Applicable change or nursing theory utilized
Proposed implementation plan with outcome measures
Identification of potential barriers to plan implementation, and a discussion of how these could be overcome
Appendix section, if tables, graphs, surveys, educational materials, etc. are created
In this assignment, students will pull together the change proposal project components they have been working on throughout the course to create a proposal inclusive of sections for each content focus area in the course. At the conclusion of this project, the student will be able to apply evidence-based research steps and processes required as the foundation to address a clinically oriented problem or issue in future practice.
Students will develop a 1,250-1,500 word paper that includes the following information as it applies to the problem, issue, suggestion, initiative, or educational need profiled in the capstone change proposal:
Background
Problem statement
Purpose of the change proposal
PICOT
Literature search strategy employed
Evaluation of the literature
Applicable change or nursing theory utilized
Proposed implementation plan with outcome measures
Identification of potential barriers to plan implementation, and a discussion of how these could be overcome
Appendix section, if tables, graphs, surveys, educational materials, etc. are created
Review the feedback from your instructor on the Topic 3 assignment, PICOT Statement Paper, and Topic 6 assignment, Literature Review. Use the feedback to make appropriate revisions to the portfolio components before submitting.
Prepare this assignment according to the guidelines found in the APA Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center. An abstract is not required.
This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion.
You are required to submit this assignment to Turnitin. Please refer to the directions in the Student Success Center.

Discussion on increased nursing collaboration
Discussion on increased nursing collaboration
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Discussion: Importance of increased nursing collaboration with other disciplines
Part One:
“Nursing should not ‘borrow’ theories from other disciplines.” Refute this statement by providing specific examples from your current nursing practice. (I work on a medical surgical unit) Describe the importance of increased nursing collaboration with other disciplines.
Your initial posting should be at least 400 words in length and utilize at least one scholarly source other than the textbook.
Part two:
Case Study
The hospice nurse sat with Ann’s husband, Ben. Ann was resting quietly as the increased dosage of IV pain medication gradually reached its therapeutic level. Ben turned his head and slowly turned, looking out the room’s only window. As he glanced up, a small flicker of light caught his breath. It was a shooting star. A tear fell from the corner of his eye and he turned to Ann. The nurse sensed that something significant to Ann and Ben was unfolding. Shuffling to Ann’s bedside, he took her small fragile hand in his. These hands had rocked cradles, burped babies, and groomed the horses she loved to ride. Gently holding her hand, he turned to the nurse. “She would ride like the wind was chasing her.” Looking back to Ann his voice broke; choking back tears “Ann, Ann I saw Jessie…Jessie is calling.” Ben turned “Jessie was our daughter. She died having a baby that was too big. When she died it was a pitch-black night. Cold, so cold, the baby died too, a little boy, named him Abe, Jr. after Jessie’s husband. I took Ann outside so she could cry to God above and there in this dark sky we saw two falling stars…together…just falling. We knew it had to be Jessie and Abe…two angels to light up the night.” Ben turned back as a deep sigh escaped from Ann’s lips. A soft smile remained as she joined Jessie and Abe.
Based on this case study how would the nurse actualize Parse’s theory of Human Becoming?
What are characteristics of a human becoming nurse? What are strengths and weaknesses to this theory of nursing?
What challenges exist for healthcare institutions to switch to this nursing approach?
How might Parse’s understanding of transcendence guide the nurse, as Ann’s death became a reality to Ben?
From the nursing theories we have discussed, what additional theory would you apply to this case study? Develop a plan of care to include both nursing theories (be specific and provide reasons)

Assignment: Comparative Test in Psychology
Assignment: Comparative Test in Psychology
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Assignment: Comparative Test in Psychology
Who can complete my exam asap!!!!
A functionalist would likely ask which one of the following questions about socially assistive robots?
a.
How will socially assistive robots affect interaction?
b.
What meanings do people assign to socially assistive robots?
c.
Who benefits from socially assistive robots and at whose expense?
d.
What are the intended and unintended consequences of socially assistive robots?
1 points
Question 5
Which of the following is a false statement about the characteristics of high-quality sociological research?
a.
Sociological findings endure as long as the research process can be replicated.
b.
Once a sociological study is completed, findings are considered final.
Assignment: Comparative Test in Psychology
c.
Sociologists strive to be objective.
d.
Sociologists invite others to critique their work.
1 points
Question 6
Which one of the following phrases would Marx be least likely to use to describe capitalism?
a.
blood-sucking
b.
a boundless thirst
c.
a werewolf-like hunger
d.
socially conscious
1 points
Question 7
The early sociologists were witnesses to the transforming effects of the
a.
the Industrial Revolution.
b.
World War II.
c.
World War I.
d.
War in Afghanistan.
1 points
Question 8
Each of the _____ offers a central question to direct thinking and key concepts to organize answers.
a.
negotiated order
b.
social actions
c.
theoretical perspectives
Assignment: Comparative Test in Psychology
d.
methods of research
1 points
Question 9
_____ is the theorist most likely to draw attention to unconditional basic income as a response to widespread unemployment.
a.
Karl Marx
b.
Max Weber
c.
Auguste Comte
d.
Emile Durkheim
1 points
Question 10
_____ is the sociologist who focused on the factors that strengthen, weaken, or otherwise shape the character of social ties.
a.
Karl Marx
b.
Emile Durkheim
Assignment: Comparative Test in Psychology
c.
W.E.B Dubois
d.
Max Weber
1 points
Question 11
Smart phones, introduced in 1996, are now a global-scale phenomenon. Some people in remote locations have embraced smart phone apps that connect them with health care providers anywhere in the world. This development illustrates the twin forces of
a.
industrialization and mechanization.
b.
globalization and glocalization.
c.
troubles and issues.
d.
human activity and media.
1 points
Question 12
The _____ is the best perspective to draw upon for exploring human-robot interactions.
a.
social action theory
b.
functionalist
c.
symbolic interaction
d.
conflict
1 points
Question 13
The defining feature of the Industrial Revolution was
a.
solidarity.
b.
mechanization.
c.
standardization.
d.
modernization.
1 points
Question 14
The question “Who benefits from a particular pattern or social arrangement?” is of most interest to a(n)
a.
conflict theorist.
b.
symbolic interactionist.
c.
action theorist.
d.
functionalist.
1 points
Question 15
“Knowing one another better reinforces the common connection such that the potential for caring and empathetic moral actions increase.” This statement summarizes the essence of
a.
sympathetic knowledge.
b.
double consciousness.
c.
solidarity.
d.
division of labor.
1 points
Question 16
An employer tells workers “If you aren’t happy with the pay and working conditions here, go work somewhere else! It’s a free country.” Conflict theorists call this line of reasoning
a.
cultural relativity.
b.
sympathetic knowledge.
c.
good business practice.
d.
the façade of legitimacy.
1 points
Question 17
The Communist Manifesto is a famous pamphlet that _____ co-authored with Fredrich Engels.
a.
Emile Durkheim.
b.
Karl Marx.
c.
Max Weber.
d.
W.E.B. DuBois.
1 points
Question 18
When in a nation of 150 million workers, 24 million are unemployed, that is
a.
a crime.
b.
a trouble.
c.
an issue.
d.
personal tragedy.
1 points
Question 19
Which of the following would be the best option to obtain a representative sample of students at your college?
a.
At random, draw a list of students from the most recent college registrar’s list.
b.
Stop students as they are walking to their cars in parking lots and ask them to participate.
c.
Ask all of the sociology majors to participate in the study.
d.
Ask students eating in the cafeteria at lunchtime to participate in an important study.
1 points
Question 20
The term ___________________ describes a state in which ties attaching individuals to others in the society are weak.
a.
egoistic
b.
fatalistic
c.
altruistic
d.
anomic
1 points
Question 21
Jared lives in a consumption-oriented culture. He decides to do historical research to understand how a country might develop a conservation-oriented way of life. Jared’s approach is influenced by
a.
Max Weber.
b.
Emile Durkheim.
c.
Karl Marx.
d.
Auguste Comte.
1 points
Question 22
When Oreo cookies are transplanted into a new setting and then changed to fit local tastes, the process is known as
a.
globalization.
b.
industrialization.
c.
glocalization.
d.
the sociological imagination.
1 points
Question 23
The high school dropout rate in the United States is greater than 25 percent. C. Wright Mills would classify this situation as
a.
an issue.
b.
a trouble.
c.
value-rational action.
d.
a social fact.
1 points
Question 24
Lee’s research involving Snackbot showed that under the right conditions, people can form collegial (even social) relationships with workplace robots. This finding relates to the _____ perspective.
a.
functionalist
b.
symbolic interactionist
c.
social action
d.
conflict
1 points
Question 25
Marx believed that ________ was the first economic system that could maximize the immense productive potential of human labor and ingenuity.
a.
democracy
b.
capitalism
c.
socialism
d.
communism
1 points
Question 26
According to functionalists, poverty exists because
a.
somebody has to be on the bottom.
b.
it contributes in some way to the stability of an existing social order.
c.
the poor lack the drive to do better.
d.
the poor are largely unmotivated to work.
1 points
Question 27
One unintended or unexpected disruption of socially assistive robots is that people may actually prefer the company of robots over fellow humans. This situation represents
a.
manifest dysfunction.
b.
manifest function.
c.
latent dysfunction.
d.
latent function.
1 points
Question 28
As driveless technologies are developed we anticipate that 1.6 million long-distance truck drivers will be at risk of losing their jobs. This situation is an example of
a.
an issue.
b.
an opportunity.
c.
a trouble.
d.
a personal crisis.
1 points
Question 29
Behavior influenced by the attention one receives from being the subject of a research study is the
a.
latent effect.
b.
experimental effect.
c.
Hawthorne effect.
d.
special subject effect.
1 points
Question 30
Which one of the following aspects of the globalization process would Weber be most concerned?
a.
The ways in which globalization reduces wages.
b.
The ways in which globalization undermines behavior motivated by tradition.
c.
The way in which globalization creates hardships for low-income households.
d.
The way in which globalization undermines local ties.
1 points
Question 31
Which of the following is something symbolic interactionists emphasize?
a.
outcomes
b.
negotiated order
c.
functions
d.
means of production
1 points
Question 32
If an individual pursues a college degree because everyone in his or her family going back five generations is college-educated, the action can be classified as
a.
value-rational.
b.
instrumental rational
c.
traditional.
d.
affectional.
1 points
Question 33
Which one of the following sociologists would most likely advocate for putting low-cost technologies such as smart phones into the hands of those who are disadvantaged?
a.
Max Weber
b.
Jane Addams
c.
Emile Durkheim
d.
Auguste Comte
1 points
Question 34
A trial explanation predicting a relationship between independent and dependent variables is a(n)
a.
theory.
b.
fact.
c.
observation.
d.
hypothesis.
1 points
Question 35
If one respondent gives different answers to the same question at two different points in time, the researcher should be concerned about
a.
reliability.
b.
the Hawthorne effect.
c.
representativeness.
d.
validity.
1 points
Question 36
Which one of the following assumptions applies to the scientific method?
a.
Research findings can be manipulated to advance a good cause.
b.
Knowledge is acquired through observation.
c.
Truth is confirmed through faith.
d.
Research finding should not be replicated.
1 points
Question 37
W.E.B. Dubois traced the origin of _________ to the scramble for Africa’s resources, beginning with the slave trade.
a.
disenchantment
b.
the color line
c.
troubles
d.
double consciousness
1 points
Question 38
Which one of the following statements represents a criticism of the functionalist perspective?
a.
It leaves us wondering about a part’s overall effect.
b.
It focuses on the “small stuff.”
c.
It is too liberal.
d.
It focuses on the “have nots.”
1 points
Question 39
Jamie gains first-hand knowledge about poverty by working at a food bank. This kind of knowledge is known as,
a.
social research.
b.
sympathetic knowledge.
c.
solidarity.
d.
double consciousness.
1 points
Question 40
Researchers should maintain objectivity. This means they should
a.
not accept funding from outside sources.
b.
not let personal and subjective views about the topic influence observations or outcome of research.
c.
refuse to share data with others.
d.
stay away from topics in which they have a personal interest.
1 points
Question 41
The actions of someone who always gives their best effort and never cuts corners would qualify as ____ action.
a.
affective
b.
instrumental rational
c.
traditional
d.
value rational
1 points
Question 42
If socially assistive robots assume caregiving roles, a number of unanticipated consequences may occur such as the elimination of sexual abuse. This unanticipated consequence is a
a.
manifest function.
b.
latent function.
c.
manifest dysfunction.
d.
latent dysfunction.
1 points
Question 43
Which one of the following statements describes the best way to apply the three perspectives?
a.
Most sociologists analyze an issue using one perspective.
b.
We can acquire a more complete view of something by applying all three perspectives.
c.
Only one perspective can give us a complete picture of a process or an event.
d.
The three perspectives should be viewed as opposing viewpoints.
1 points
Question 44
Jane Addams maintained that Hull House
a.
was the equivalent of an applied university.
b.
was a failed experiment in social engineering.
c.
could not deliver services that helped working poor.
d.
was analogous to a community college.
1 points
Question 45
Auguste Comte recommended that sociologists study
a.
the color line.
b.
the things people have created.
c.
conflict as in agent of change.
d.
the ties that bind.
1 points
Question 46
The obesity rate in the United States is greater than 30 percent. According to Mills, the key to resolving this issue involves focusing on
a.
the character flaws of the 92 million plus Americans who are obese.
b.
getting people to eat less.
c.
addressing the underlying social forces that contribute to obesity.
d.
ways to get the obese to want to lose weight.
1 points
Question 47
Which one of the following concepts applies to the façade of legitimacy?
a.
fair analysis
b.
misleading
c.
logical
d.
well-documented assertions
1 points
Question 48
The question “Is this operational definition really measuring what it claims to measure?” addresses concerns surrounding
a.
correlations.
b.
sampling.
c.
validity.
d.
reliability.
1 points
Question 49
The economic system accompanying and driving the Industrial Revolution was
a.
the welfare state.
b.
socialism.
c.
communism.
d.
capitalism.
1 points
Question 50
The gay pride movement can be traced to 1897 in Berlin Germany and has spread to various locations around the world. 115 years later the first gay bar was established in Lamai Beach, Thailand. This movement illustrates the twin forces of
a.
industrialization and mechanization.
b.
troubles and issues.
c.
globalization and glocalization.
d.
human activity and media.

Assignment: Human biological tendency
Assignment: Human biological tendency
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Question 1
REBT is based on the assumption that:
[removed] a. Humans have a biological tendency to think irrationally
[removed] b. Humans have a biological tendency to think rationally
[removed] c. Both a and b
[removed] d. None of the above
2 points
Question 2
_____________ is the behavioral intervention used to gradually increase the quality of a behavior.
[removed] a. Shaping
[removed] b. Extinction
[removed] c. Stimulus control
[removed] d. Aversive control
2 points
Question 3
DBT utilizes a behavioral technique in which the client learns to tolerate painful emotions without enacting self-destructive behaviors known as:
[removed] a. Positive reinforcement
[removed] b. Negative reinforcement
[removed] c. Exposure
[removed] d. Punishment
2 points
Question 4
In reality therapy, behavior is affected by:
[removed] a. The impact of external stimuli on behavior
[removed] b. Unconscious conflicts
[removed] c. Current inner motivation
[removed] d. All of the above
2 points
Assignment: Human biological tendency
Question 5
In reality therapy, the skilled counselor or therapist treats behavior as:
[removed] a. The result of social pressure and limited perceptions of possibilities
[removed] b. Information received from parents and from the surrounding culture
[removed] c. Caused by self-verbalizations that can be helpful or hurtful
[removed] d. Chosen as a result of unmet wants and needs/font>
2 points
Question 6
A method in which the counselor or therapist leads the client through a number of questions to become aware of thoughts and distortions in thinking, and to find and implement more adaptive replacements is called:
[removed] a. “Socratic Questioning”
[removed] b. “Platonic Questioning”
[removed] c. A-B-C Model
[removed] d. Reflection
2 points
Question 7
In the A-B-C model proposed by Ellis, the factor that creates the emotional and behavioral consequences is:
[removed] a. Activating event
[removed] b. Consequences
[removed] c. Beliefs
[removed] d. None of the above
2 points
Question 8
According to Glasser, human behaviors are composed of:
[removed] a. Doing, thinking, feeling, physiology
[removed] b. Doing, resting, sleeping, acting
[removed] c. Responding, initiating, ignoring, acting
[removed] d. None of the above
2 points
Question 9
In practicing reality therapy, counselors and therapists focus on:
[removed] a. The interpersonal relationships of the client
[removed] b. Insight into causes of behavior
[removed] c. Family history
[removed] d. Personal history
2 points
Question 10
According to Ellis, the shoulds, oughts, and musts fall under which of the following categories?
[removed] a. Self-demandingness
[removed] b. Other-demandingness
[removed] c. World-demandingness
[removed] d. All of the above
2 points
Question 11
In reality therapy, the environment or counseling or psychotherapeutic atmosphere includes which of the following?
[removed] a. Attending behaviors
[removed] b. Doing the unexpected
[removed] c. Use of metaphors
[removed] d. All of the above
2 points
Question 12
The DBT model proposes that a successful counseling intervention must meet five critical functions. Which of the following is not one of these functions?
[removed] a. Improve and preserve the client’s incentive to change
[removed] b. Boost the client’s capabilities
[removed] c. Ensure the client’s capabilities are specific to his or her environment
[removed] d. Structure the environment so that the treatment can take place
2 points
Question 13
A counselor using CBT might focus on using:
[removed] a. Pharmacotherapy
[removed] b. Dream analysis
[removed] c. Transference
[removed] d. Risk-taking exercises
2 points
Question 14
DBT is driven by three theories. Which of the following is not one of those?
[removed] a. Behavior therapy
[removed] b. Biosocial theory of BPD
[removed] c. Dialectics
[removed] d. Gestalt theory
2 points
Question 15
Which of the following is true about REBT?
[removed] a. REBT was influenced by Rogers’ core conditions of counseling.
[removed] b. REBT was influenced by Freud’s concept of the unconscious.
[removed] c. REBT was influenced by Frankl’s logotherapy.
[removed] d. None of the above
2 points
Question 16
_______________ is the sense of personal competence or feelings of mastery.
[removed] a. Self-concept
[removed] b. Self-esteem
[removed] c. Self-efficacy
[removed] d. Self-control
2 points
Question 17
Which of the following is associated with reality therapy?
[removed] a. WDEP system
[removed] b. Choice theory
[removed] c. SAMIICCC
[removed] d. All of the above
2 points
Question 18
Cognitive therapy has been criticized for its focus on:
[removed] a. Internal events (thinking)
[removed] b. Direct observation
[removed] c. Listening procedures
[removed] d. Intellectual understanding
2 points
Question 19
Which of the following is not consistent with REBT theory?
[removed] a. Events or other people make us feel bad or good.
[removed] b. Thinking, feeling, and behaving are interconnected.
[removed] c. Emotional distress results from exaggeration, overgeneralization, and invalidated assumptions.
[removed] d. Irrational beliefs emanate from environmental and genetic factors.
2 points
Question 20
A client is partaking in cognitive distortion when he/she exaggerates a negative event to the point that the event has more impact than it deserves. What is this called?
[removed] a. Disqualifying the positive
[removed] b. Catastrophizing
[removed] c. All-or-nothing thinking
[removed] d. None of the above
2 points
Question 21
In choice theory, human motivation springs from which of these five sources?
[removed] a. Belonging, survival, knowledge, fun, power
[removed] b. Survival, belonging, power, freedom, fun
[removed] c. Power, achievement, enjoyment, information, security
[removed] d. Survival, achievement, love, success, pride
2 points
Question 22
DBT was initially developed to treat:
[removed] a. Narcissistic personality disorder
[removed] b. Histrionic personality disorder
[removed] c. Antisocial personality disorder
[removed] d. Borderline personality disorder
2 points
Question 23
The developer of dialectical behavior therapy is:
[removed] a. Dr. Marsha Linehan
[removed] b. Dr. Albert Ellis
[removed] c. Dr. Carl Rogers
[removed] d. Dr. Fritz Perls
2 points
Question 24
DBT targets behaviors in descending order beginning with ________.
[removed] a. triggers
[removed] b. biosocial susceptibility
[removed] c. suicidal behavior
[removed] d. enhancing respect for self
2 points
Question 25
According to REBT, certain values promote emotional adjustment and mental health. Which of the following is not one of these values?
[removed] a. Non-utopian
[removed] b. Low frustration tolerance
[removed] c. Flexibility
[removed] d. High frustration tolerance

Discussion: Assessing the Ears
Discussion: Assessing the Ears
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Discussion: Assessing the Ears, Nose, and Throat
Most ear, nose, and throat conditions that arise in non-critical care settings are minor in nature. However, subtle symptoms can sometimes escalate into life-threatening conditions that require prompt assessment and treatment. Nurses conducting assessments of the ears, nose, and throat must be able to identify the small differences between life-threatening conditions and benign ones. For instance, if a patient with a sore throat and a runny nose also has inflamed lymph nodes, the inflammation is probably due to the pathogen causing the sore throat rather than a case of throat cancer. With this knowledge and a sufficient patient health history, a nurse would not need to escalate the assessment to a biopsy or an MRI of the lymph nodes, but would probably perform a simple strep test.
In this Discussion, you consider case studies of abnormal findings from patients in a clinical setting. You determine what history should be collected from the patients, what physical exams and diagnostic tests should be conducted, and formulate a differential diagnosis with several possible conditions.
Note: By Day 1 of this week, your Instructor will have assigned you to one of the following specific case studies for this Discussion. Also, your Discussion post should be in the Episodic/Focused SOAP Note format, rather than the traditional narrative style Discussion posting format. Refer to Chapter 2 of the Sullivan text and the Episodic/Focused SOAP Template in the Week 5 Learning Resources for guidance. Remember that all Episodic/Focused SOAP notes have specific data included in every patient case.
Case 1: Nose Focused Exam
Richard is a 50-year-old male with nasal congestion, sneezing, rhinorrhea, and postnasal drainage. Richard has struggled with an itchy nose, eyes, palate, and ears for 5 days. As you check his ears and throat for redness and inflammation, you notice him touch his fingers to the bridge of his nose to press and rub there. He says he’s taken Mucinex OTC the past two nights to help him breathe while he sleeps. When you ask if the Mucinex has helped at all, he sneers slightly and gestures that the improvement is only minimal. Richard is alert and oriented. He has pale, boggy nasal mucosa with clear thin secretions and enlarged nasal turbinates, which obstruct airway flow but his lungs are clear. His tonsils are not enlarged but his throat is mildly erythematous.
Case 2: Focused Throat Exam
Lily is a 20-year-old student at the local community college. When some of her friends and classmates told her about an outbreak of flu-like symptoms sweeping her campus over the past two weeks, Lily figured she shouldn’t take her three-day sore throat lightly. Your clinic has treated a few cases similar to Lily’s. All the patients reported decreased appetite, headaches, and pain with swallowing. As Lily recounts these symptoms to you, you notice that she has a runny nose and a slight hoarseness in her voice but doesn’t sound congested.
Case 3: Focused Ear Exam
Martha brings her 11-year old grandson, James, to your clinic to have his right ear checked. He has complained to her about a mild earache for the past two days. His grandmother believes that he feels warm but did not verify this with a thermometer. James states that the pain was worse while he was falling asleep and that it was harder for him to hear. When you begin basic assessments, you notice that James has a prominent tan. When you ask him how he’s been spending his summer, James responds that he’s been spending a lot of time in the pool.
To prepare:
With regard to the case study you were assigned:
· Review this week’s Learning Resources and consider the insights they provide.
· Consider what history would be necessary to collect from the patient.
· Consider what physical exams and diagnostic tests would be appropriate to gather more information about the patient’s condition. How would the results be used to make a diagnosis?
· Identify at least 5 possible conditions that may be considered in a differential diagnosis for the patient.
Note: Before you submit your initial post, replace the subject line (“Week 5 Discussion”) with “Review of Case Study ___,” identifying the number of the case study you were assigned.
Post an episodic/focused note about the patient in the case study to which you were assigned using the episodic/focused note template provided in week 5 resources. Provide evidence from the literature to support diagnostic tests that would be appropriate for each case. List five different possible conditions for the patient’s differential diagnosis and justify why you selected each.

Assignment: Perspectives of personality
Assignment: Perspectives of personality
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Assignment: Perspectives of personality
For this discipline-based literature review, you will research peer-reviewed articles that were published within the last 10 years in the Ashford University Library on the following major perspectives of personality.
Psychodynamic
Behavioral
Trait
Learning/Social
Humanistic
You will utilize your researched article to create your literature review. The review should be formatted with the headings and content designated below.
Introduction
Assess the types of personality measurements and research designs used in in the peer-reviewed articles you researched. Briefly describe the main theoretical models represented within each of the perspectives of personality and explain the commonalities found across all five.
Discussion
Examine the major theoretical approaches, research methods, and assessment instruments used in the five perspectives of personality. Evaluate and describe the current research in these perspectives using a minimum of one peer-reviewed article for each of the five required perspectives. Present a detailed critique of each of the perspectives by evaluating the standardization, reliability and validity, and cultural considerations present in the most common personality assessments used within each. Support your opinions about each model by substantiating them with scholarly research. Be sure to include the following:
The theoretical framework(s) for the selected models
The major contributors to those fields
The methods of inquiry and assessment usually associated with those models
An overview of the characteristics, strengths, and weaknesses of the models
Conclusion
Provide a summary of your evaluation addressing the current use and relevance of these perspectives in explaining personality citing research as appropriate.
Writing the Discipline Based Literature Review
The paper:
Must be seven to ten double-spaced pages in length and formatted according to APA style as outlined in the Ashford Writing Center.
Must include a title page with the following:
Title of paper
Your name
Course name and number
Your instructor’s name
Date submitted
Must begin with an introduction that describes and the main theoretical models represented within each of the perspectives of personality.
Must address the topics of the paper with critical thought.
Must end with a conclusion that summarizes your evaluation addressing the current use and relevance of these perspectives in explaining personality.
Must use at least five peer-reviewed sources from the Ashford University Library.
Must document all sources in APA style as outlined in the Ashford Writing Center.
Must include a separate reference page that is formatted according to APA style as outlined in the Ashford Writing Center.

Assignment: court of law confidentiality
Assignment: court of law confidentiality
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Assignment: Laws, ethics, and confidentiality needed to hold up in a court of law
Respond by Day 5 to at least one of your colleagues’ postings in one or more of the following ways:
Expand on a colleague’s post.
Validate an idea with your own experience.
Offer or support an opinion related to organizational ethics.
Validate an idea with your own experience.
respond to RL-post
The article was about information security, confidentiality, and cyber ethics for law entities. The article discussed the laws, ethics, and confidentaility involved in cyber security for law enforcement. The author discussed the difficulty in relation to understanding the laws, ethics, and confidentiality needed to hold up in a court of law. The article discussed how it is the responsibility of the lawyer to make sure the information is ethical and confidential according to the laws in place. The author also discusses the lawyers duty of competence and the challenges the lawyer would face.
The title of the journal was Northern Kentucky Law Review. The journal is an independent journal that is edited by college law students. The journal was founded in 1973. The author was Thomas Doty. He is the Director of Intellectual Asset Protection at NuStrategies LLC. That company is a group of reformed attorneys and technology experts. Doty hold his Masters of Law degree from the University of New Hampshire.
The ethical issue highlighted was confidentiality. It would be the lawyer’s responsibility to make sure the information collected by law enforcement did not breach any confidentiality laws. If the confidentiality was breached, then an ethical dilemma would occur and the lawyers would have to find a solution. Confidentiality is a large issue especially online since a lot of people’s personal information is accessible online. Confidentiality causes a lot of ethical issues so lawyers and law enforcement officers have to be careful when walking this fine line.
Thomas Doty, Esq, LLM ** (2017). ARTICLE: INFORMATION SECURITY, CONFIDENTIALITY, AND CYBER ETHICS FOR LAW ENTITIES . Northern Kentucky Law Review, 44, 1. Retrieved from https://advance-lexis-com.ezp.waldenulibrary.org/api/document?collection=analytical-materials&id=urn:contentItem:5RHS-DV70-00CV-R0CS-00000-00&context=1516831.

Family Health Assessment Assignment
Family Health Assessment Assignment
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Family Health Assessment Assignment
Details:
Refer back to the interview and evaluation you conducted in the Topic 2 Family Health Assessment assignment. Identify the social determinates of health (SDOH) contributing to the family’s health status. In a 750-1,000-word paper, create a plan of action to incorporate health promotion strategies for this family. Include the following:
Describe the SDOH that affect the family health status. What is the impact of these SDOH on the family? Discuss why these factors are prevalent for this family.
Based on the information gathered through the family health assessment, recommend age-appropriate screenings for each family member. Provide support and rationale for your suggestions.
Choose a health model to assist in creating a plan of action. Describe the model selected. Discuss the reasons why this health model is the best choice for this family. Provide rationale for your reasoning.
Using the model, outline the steps for a family-centered health promotion. Include strategies for communication.
1. FAMILY HEALTH ASSESSMENT
Family Health Assessment ? This involves a set of actions by which the status of a family as client, its ability to maintain itself as a system and functioning unit, and its ability to maintain wellness, prevent, control, or resolve problems in order to achieve health and well-being among its members are measured.
Family Health Assessment (cont.) Data Collection Data Analysis Diagnosis
Data Collection ? There are two important things to ensure effective and efficient data collection in family health assessment: ? Types and kinds of data needed ? Family structure, characteristics, and dynamics ? Socio-economic and cultural characteristics ? Home and environment ? Health Status of each member ? Values and practices on health promotion and maintenance and illness prevention ? Method of data gathering
Types of Data Needed (1) ? Family Structure, Characteristics, and Dynamics ? Members of the household and relationship to the head of the family ? Demographic data ? Place of residence of each member ? Type of family structure – matriarchal or patriarchal, nuclear or extended ? Dominant family members in terms of decision making ? General family relationships or dynamics
Types of Data Needed (2) ?Socio-Economic and Cultural Characteristics ? Income and expenses ? Occupation and place of work of each member ? Adequacy to meet basic needs ? Who makes decision about family expenditure ? Educational attainment of each member ? Ethnic background and religious affiliation ? Significant others and role(s) they play in the family ? Relationship of the family to a larger community
Types of Data Needed (3) ? Home and Environment ? Housing ? Adequacy of living space ? Sleeping arrangement ? Presence of breeding or resting sites of vectors of diseases ? Presence of accident hazards ? Food storage and cooking facilities ? Water supply ? Toilet facility ? Garbage disposal ? Drainage system ? Kind of neighborhood ? Social and health facilities available ? Communication and transportation facilities available
Types of Data Needed (4) ? Health Status of each Family Member ? Medical history indicating current or past significant illnesses or beliefs and practices conducive to health and illness ? Nutritional assessment (anthropometric data, dietary history, eating/feeding habits/practices) ? Risk factor assessment indicating presence of major and contributing modifiable risk factors for specific lifestyle diseases ? Physical assessment indicating presence of illness state/s ? Results of laboratory/diagnostic and other screening procedures supportive of assessment findings
Types of Data Needed (4) ? Values, Habits, Practices on Health Promotion, Maintenance and Disease Prevention ? Immunization status ? Healthy lifestyle practices ? Adequacy of: ? Rest and sleep ? Exercise/activities ? Use of protective measures ? Use of promotive-preventive health services
Data Gathering Methods and Tools ?Observation ?Physical Examination ?Interview ?Record Review ?Laboratory/Diagnostic Tests
First Level Assessment (1) ?The process whereby existing and potential health conditions or problems of the family are determined. ?It relates what health problems exist and will exist. ?Categories: ? Wellness State ? Health Threats ? Health Deficits ? Foreseeable Crisis
First Level Assessment (2) ?Presence of Wellness Condition ? A clinical judgement about a client in transition from a specific level of wellness or capability to a higher level. ? Based on client’s performance, current performance, current competencies, or clinical data but no explicit expression of client desire. ? May either be potential or readiness
First Level Assessment (3) ? Presence of Health Threats ? Conditions that are conducive to disease and accident, or may result to failure to maintain wellness or realize health potential ? Presence of Health Deficits ? Instances of failure in health maintenance ? Presence of Foreseeable Crisis ? Anticipated periods of unusual demand on the individual or family in terms of adjustment/family resources
Second Level Assessment (1) ? Defines the nature or type of nursing problems that the family encounters in performing the health tasks with respect to a given health condition or problem, and the etiology or barriers to the families’ assumption of these tasks. ? It explains the family’s problems related to maintaining health and wellness. ? It specified the measures that the family did not do due to INABILITY.
Second Level Assessment (2) ? Determine if the family recognizes the existence of the condition or problem. If the family does not recognize the presence of the condition or problem, explore the reasons why. ? If the family recognizes the presence of the condition or problem, determine if something has been done to maintain the wellness state or resolve the problem. If the family has not done anything about it, determine the reasons why. If the family has done something about the problem or condition, determine if the solution is effective. ? Determine if the family encounters other problems in implementing the interventions for wellness state/potential, health threat, health deficit, or crisis. Identify these problems. ? Determine how all the other members are affected by the wellness state/potential, health threat, health deficit, or stress point.
Typology of Problems in Family Health (First Level) Wellness Condition Health Threats Health Deficits Foreseeable Crisis 1. Potential for Enhanced Capability for 2. Readiness for Enhanced Capability for: