Nursing

Discussion: clients receiving psychotherapy
Discussion: clients receiving psychotherapy
Discussion: Diagnoses for clients receiving psychotherapy
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Discussion: Diagnoses for clients receiving psychotherapy
Learning Objectives
Students will:
· Develop diagnoses for clients receiving psychotherapy*
· Evaluate the efficacy of cognitive behavioral therapy for clients*
· Analyze legal and ethical implications of counseling clients with psychiatric disorders*
Select a client whom you observed or counseled this week. Then, address the following in your Practicum Journal:
· Describe the client (without violating HIPAA regulations) and identify any pertinent history or medical information, including prescribed medications.
· Using the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Health Disorders, 5th edition (DSM-5), explain and justify your diagnosis for this client.
· Explain whether cognitive behavioral therapy would be effective with this client. Include expected outcomes based on this therapeutic approach. Support your approach with evidence-based literature.
· Explain any legal and/or ethical implications related to counseling this client.
Voluntary participation means that people participate in the evaluation free from coercion. Participants are free to withdraw their participation at any time without negatively impacting on their involvement in future services or the current program2 and relationships with any of the researchers or research bodies involved. It can be challenging to encourage high risk youth to become engaged in a program and it is therefore difficult when participants choose not to continue in a program. It is the right of participants to leave a program of this nature at any time, therefore no pressure should be placed on those who choose not to continue. Explanations are also not required.
Do no harm
Harm can be both physical and/or psychological and therefore can be in the form of: stress, pain, anxiety, diminishing self-esteem or an invasion of privacy.2 It is imperative that the evaluation process does not in any way harm (unintended or otherwise) participants.
Confidentiality
Confidentiality means that any identifying information is not made available to, or accessed by anyone but the program coordinator.2 Confidentiality also ensures such identifying information is excluded from any reports or published documents. Given that there are often small numbers in peer based programs, it is very important to consider how reports are worded to ensure that there is no opportunity for people to be identified even though names are not used.
Anonymity
Anonymity is a stricter form of privacy than confidentiality, as the identity of the participant remains unknown to the research team.2 This is more difficult to achieve than confidentiality as participants in the context of social research are usually known to the program coordinator.1
Only assess relevant components
Only assess those components that are of relevance to the program/initiative being conducted. High risk populations are sometimes being used as guinea pigs or a captive audience to ask all sorts of questions in evaluations that are of interest to groups conducting the program/initiative but not relevant to the program nor will be to the group who are involved in the program. It is important to keep evaluations as simple as possible and to remain focused on the intention of the evaluation and what the data gathered will be used for.

Assignment: Psychometric terms
Assignment: Psychometric terms
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Assignment: Psychometric terms
According to Cohen and Swerdlik (2018), Reliability means to be consistent. In psychometric terms, the meaning of reliability is based on when something is said to be consistent. The book defines “a reliability coefficient is an index of reliability, a proportion that indicates the ratio between the true score variance on a test and the total variance” (Cohen & Swerdlik, 2018, p. 141). Moreover, in testing and assessment there exist three sources of error variance such as test construction, test administration, and test scoring and interpretation. The text state that a measurement error is everything that is associated with the process of the variable being measured instead of the variable being measured (Cohen & Swerdlik, 2018).
Internal consistency reliability coefficient = .92
According to Cohen and Swerdlik (2018), states that internal consistency reliability is when a one can obtain an estimation of a test being reliable without creating a different form of the test nor administering the same test twice to the same individual (Cohen & Swerdlik, 2018). Furthermore, a test that has an Internal consistency reliability coefficient = .92 means that the item on the test must relate to one another and it also means that there exists a strong relationship between the content of the test. As I mentioned at the beginning of the post reliability means to be consistent. The higher the coefficient, the more reliable the test is. A .92 means that the test has excellent reliability and it is acceptable.
Alternate forms reliability coefficient = .82
According to Cohen and Swerdlik (2018), states that alternate forms are different types of test that are built to be parallel. Hence, the reliability of the alternate forms refers to “an estimate of the extent to which these different forms of the same test have been affected by item sampling error, or other error” (Cohen & Swerdlik, 2018, p. 149). An example we can use is when a person is given two different versions of the same test at a different time.
Test-retest reliability coefficient = .50
According to Cohen and Swerdlick (2018), A test-retest reliability is when a test is administered twice at two different points of time. Moreover, one we have to evaluate the reliability of a test-retest that purport to measure is fairly stable over time (Cohen & Swerdlik, 2018).
The higher the coefficient, the more reliable the test is. .92 means that the test has excellent reliability and it is acceptable the higher, the greater. An Alternate forms reliability coefficient = .82 is still high reliability, and it is also acceptable. A test-retest is a correlation of the same test over two administrator which relates to stability that involves scores. The book states that the more extended time has, the higher the chances that the reliability coefficient will be lower. Therefore, the passage of time may be an error of variance (Cohen & Swerdlik, 2018). Thus, depending on what the individual has been through some traumatic event it may also create an error variance which will impact their score variance and which will change, and the reliability will be lower than if that individual did not have any traumatic event. Therefore, if it is below .50 is not considered to be a reliable test nor acceptable. The book also states that “If we are to come to proper conclusions about the reliability of the measuring instrument, evaluation of a test-retest reliability estimate must extend to a consideration of possible intervening factors between test administrations” (Cohen & Swerdlik, 2018, p. 146).
Reference
Cohen, R. J., Swerdlik, M. (2018). Psychological Testing and Assessment. [Capella]. Retrieved from https://capella.vitalsource.com/#/books/1260303195/

Assignment: Moral psychological models
Assignment: Moral psychological models
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Assignment: Moral psychological models
Please reply to two of the prompts below. Your choice of which 2 prompts, preferably the ones without graphs. 500 words in total.
1. “It is valid to suggest that some cultures are morally superior to others.” Do you agree or disagree with this statement? Explain your conclusion by basing it on evidence from one of the moral psychological models discussed in your textbook.
2. An orthodox religious adherent is debating with a progressive religious adherent about abortion. They each provide a certain number of justifications for their perspectives. In the space below, for each religious adherent, graph out how many statements one would expect to correspond to each moral intuition based on the relationship between codes of ethics and moral intuitions.
3. In trying to summarize research on punishment and cooperation for your supervisor, you decide to draw a line graph that separately predicts cooperation within a culture based on a culture’s willingness to engage in (a) antisocial punishment and (b) altruistic punishment. Draw such a line graph.
4. You are surveying computer stores in individualistic and collectivistic cultures to determine what system they use to pay their sales employees. System 1 is to pay based on a meritocracy. System 2 is to pay everyone the same amount of money each month. Draw a bar graph that portrays the proportion of individualistic companies and collectivistic companies that use each salary system.e what system they use to pay their sales employees. System 1 is to pay based on a meritocracy. System 2 is to pay everyone the same amount of money each month. Draw a bar graph that portrays the proportion of individualistic companies and collectivistic companies that use each salary system.

Case Analysis: Adulthood Assignment
Case Analysis: Adulthood Assignment
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Case Study Analysis: Adulthood
For this assignment, you will complete an analysis of a case study that deals with one of the following stages of lifespan development: middle adulthood or later adulthood.
Select one of the following case studies from your Broderick and Blewitt textbook to complete an analysis of the developmental and contextual issues related to the selected case:
•David, page 554.
•Lupe, page 524.
Each of the case studies includes a set of questions that can guide your analysis of the pertinent issues for the particular case.
Expectations
Address the following in your case study analysis:
•Analyze lifespan development theories to determine the most appropriate theory or theories to apply to the case study.
•Apply the appropriate lifespan development theory to support an identified intervention process.
•Describe the potential impact of individual and cultural differences on development for the current age and context described in the case study.
•Write in a manner that is scholarly, professional, and consistent with expectations for graduate-level composition and expression.
Content
The case study analysis should be a maximum of 5 pages in length, including the introduction and conclusion, each of which should be approximately a half page in length. The body of the paper should not exceed 4 pages.
Provide the following content in your paper:
•An introduction that includes an overview of the paper contents, including a brief summary and background information regarding the case study.
•The body of the case study, including:
?The presenting challenge or challenges and primary issue or issues.
?The appropriate lifespan development theory and research-based alternatives that explain the presenting challenges.
?The potential impact of individual and cultural differences on development for the current age and context described in the case study.
?Evidence-based support from lifespan development theory and current scholarly research to support appropriate interventions.
•A conclusion that summarizes what was introduced in the body of the paper, with respect to the case study context, challenges, and interventions.
Requirements
Submit a professional document, in APA style, that includes the following required elements identified with headings and subheadings:
•Title page.
•Introduction (half page).
•Case study analysis (4 pages).
•Conclusion (half page).
•Reference page: Include a minimum of 5 scholarly resources from current peer-reviewed journals as references, in addition to referencing the textbook in which the case study is embedded.
•Font: Times New Roman, 12 point.
Resources
Website icon Case Study Analysis: Adulthood Scoring Guide.
Presentation icon APA Guide: The Title Page: Course Papers.
Website icon APA Style and Format.
PDF icon Professional Communications and Writing Guide.

Assignment Benchmark – Ethical Dilemmas
Assignment Benchmark – Ethical Dilemmas
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Assignment Benchmark – Ethical Dilemmas
In this assignment you will analyze the implications of an ethical issue according to your worldview.
Write a 1,000-1,500-word essay in which you analyze ethical thinking and use values-based decision making to address a case study from the perspective of the Christian worldview as compared to your own worldview assumptions. Choose one case study from the five options listed on “Ethical Dilemmas.”
After an appropriate introductory paragraph with thesis statement, in which you name the scenario you are choosing, address each of the following six sections with at least one paragraph each. Use the underlined titles for each of your heading.
Ethical Dilemma: Briefly describe the ethical dilemma in your own words, including (a) What in the scenario makes it difficult to make an ethical decision? and (b) Name at least two options for resolving the scenario, providing a brief overview of what sort of ethical decisions each option might make.
Core Beliefs: What beliefs about God and humanity from the Christian worldview are relevant to the scenario? How might these core worldview commitments of Christians influence one’s decision making with regard to this scenario?
Resolution: Describe the Christian worldview’s proposal for resolving the ethical dilemma. How should the person in the scenario act, according to the Christian worldview? What is the best course of action for a Christian? (Note: The resolution should be consistent with Christian worldview commitments.)
Evaluation: What might be the unintended consequences and perceived benefits of the resolution proposed by the Christian worldview?
Comparison: How does the Christian worldview’s resolution compare to another option?
Conclusion: Synthesize the main points, pulling the ideas of the paper together.
References

Assignment: violence causes aggression
Assignment: TV violence causes childhood aggression
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Assignment: TV violence causes childhood aggression
Question 1
Researchers interested in infant perception of faces have found that
Answers:
infants prefer to look at faces over other complex objects.
faces are uniquely interesting to infants.
“when looking at faces, babies have no preference for type of face.”
babies prefer to look at male faces.
babies prefer their mother’s face.
Question 2
Anita’s mother uses the same ice cream scoop to put ice cream into one large bowl and one small bowl. Anita is upset because she thinks her brother’s small bowl holds more ice cream than her large bowl. Anita has not yet acquired
Answers:
conservation.
egocentrism.
reflexes.
assimilation.
accommodation.
Question 3
A correlation cannot be used to determine whether
Answers:
children who are friendly are also smart.
honesty in school is related to honesty at home.
intelligence is related to friendliness.
honest children have honest parents.
TV violence causes childhood aggression.
Assignment: TV violence causes childhood aggression
Question 4
Bowerman and other constructivist theorists maintain that the important factor in language development is
Answers:
built-in biases.
genetically programmed operating principles.
the constraints on language.
the rate of brain cell development.
the child’s construction of language.
Question 5
Research on spatial cognition indicates that
Answers:
girls’ play preferences offer them an advantage in spatial cognition.
video games decrease mental rotation abilities.
play hampers the development of spatial skills.
boys score higher than girls on spatial cognition tasks.
it is not influenced by experience.
Question 6
The sequence of pubertal changes begins about _____________________ for boys than for girls.
Answers:
one year earlier.
two years later.
two years earlier.
six months earlier.
three years later.
Question 7
A disorder that causes mental retardation that becomes progressively worse as children get older and is also strongly associated with autism is known as ________________.
Answers:
Down syndrome.
Klinefelter’s syndrome.
Fragile-X syndrome.
Turner’s syndrome.
Huntington’s disease.
Question 8
“A set of ideas that explains other people’s ideas, beliefs, desires, and behavior is a theory of”
Answers:
mind.
cognition.
personality.
mentality.
beliefs.
Question 9
Children born to poverty-level parents who were adopted into middle-class families typically have IQs that are
Answers:
identical to those of their natural parents.
10 to 15 points higher than their adoptive mothers.
10 to 15 points higher than their birth mothers.
identical to those of their adoptive parents.
not related to either set of parents.
Assignment: TV violence causes childhood aggression
Question 10
Which of the following statements describes Lamar’s genotype?
Answers:
He has brown hair.
He is short for his age.
He looks like his father.
He has type AB blood.
He is an overachiever.
Question 11
Frank has an IQ of 97. He would be classified as
Answers:
learning disabled.
gifted.
mentally retarded.
average.
superior.
Question 12
All of the following are part of Vygotsky’s socio-cultural theory EXCEPT
Answers:
zone of proximal development.
operational efficiency.
scaffolding.
naive psychology.
the primitive stage.
Question 13
“Howard Gardner proposes eight separate types of intelligence, including all of the following EXCEPT”
Answers:
linguistic.
musical.
componential.
spatial.
interpersonal.
Question 14
“From six months on, babies begin engaging in ________, which is a sound pattern consisting of consonants and vowels.”
Answers:
cooing
babbling
gurgling
fussing
crying
Question 15
Research has shown that a newborn can
Answers:
“taste sweet and salty, but not sour or bitter.”
clearly see objects up to eight feet away.
recognize objects better than people.
discriminate his/her mother’s voice from other voices.
efficiently track a moving object.
Question 16
Watson’s Little Albert experiment demonstrated that
Answers:
children automatically fear small animals.
classical conditioning plays a role in the development of emotional responses.
operant conditioning is the only form of learning that works with infants.
conditioned stimuli are naturally occurring events.
unconditional stimuli rarely lead to long term conditioning.
Question 17
Research has shown that ____________________ is more important than family income in determining a child’s IQ.
Answers:
sibling’s IQ.
good nutrition.
limited television viewing.
quality of parent-child interactions.
activity level.
Question 18
“Billy Jean is a heavy smoker. Her doctor has warned her that research results indicate that if a mother smokes during pregnancy, the child will have”
Answers:
foreshortened or missing limbs.
vaginal cancer.
low birth weight.
learning problems in elementary school.
FAS.
Question 19
Maturation refers to
Answers:
genetically programmed sequential patterns of change
growth patterns that are not universal across cultures
growth patterns that are highly influenced by environmental factors such as practice
growth patterns that occur in adulthood only
Question 20
“According to Steiner’s research, children can first respond differentially to sweet, sour, and bitter flavors at”
Answers:
birth.
one month.
six months.
nine months.
one year.
Question 21
All of the following are common characteristics of children with fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) EXCEPT
Answers:
larger than normal size.
smaller brains.
distinct facial features.
heart defects.
physical deformities.
Question 22
The continuity vs. discontinuity issue in development relates to the idea that development
Answers:
may occur in stages and sequences
is characterized by critical periods
is characterized by either qualitative or quantitative changes
All of the above
Question 23
“When young children use audible language to help control or monitor their own behavior, they are exhibiting”
Answers:
overregularization.
child directed speech.
baby talk.
fast mapping.
private speech.
Question 24
A nativism theorist would believe that perceptual abilities are ________; whereas a empiricism theorist would state that perceptual abilities are ________.
Answers:
learned; inborn
inborn; genetic
acquired; learned
genetic; inborn
inborn; learned
Question 25
Renaldo is four years old and is experiencing a neurological growth spurt. What skill will he be attaining?
Answers:
evidence of some goal-directed planning
fluency in speaking and understanding language
improvements in eye-hand coordination
improvements in memory function
motor coordination
Question 26
Which of the following do reading experts suggest is critical to success in reading in the early years?
Answers:
picture books
silent reading
phonological awareness
workbooks
spelling lessons
Question 27
“When Bette saw a skunk for the first time and asked why the kitty had a big stripe, her mother explained that the animal was a skunk. Now Bette recognizes skunks are different from cats. Bette has used”
Answers:
integration.
accommodation.
discrimination.
assimilation.
organization.
Question 28
Bandura added all of the following concepts to traditional learning theory EXCEPT
Answers:
abstract modeling.
observational learning.
classical conditioning.
emphasis on cognitive elements.
intrinsic reinforcements.
Question 29
The Apgar scoring system is used to evaluate an infant’s
Answers:
status immediately after birth and then again five minutes later.
weight at birth and at one week after birth.
social responses at one day and one week after birth.
“strength of crying, blood pressure, and birth-weight immediately after birth.”
readiness to be taken home.
Question 30
“When a baby understands that her bottle still exists even when she throws it down and it disappears under the sofa, she is demonstrating”
Answers:
size constancy.
shape constancy.
object identity.
object permanence.
object constancy.
Question 31
How does Erikson’s psychoanalytic theory differ from that of Freud?
Answers:
It is described as psychosexual.
It focuses on psychosocial stages influenced by common cultural demands.
“It is based on libidial energy and incorporates the concepts of id, ego, and superego.”
It includes both a phallic and genital stage.
It states that a child’s success depends on interaction with people and objects.
Question 32
Maria’s baby has just started to see colors. Her baby is how old?
Answers:
12 months
9 months
6 months
3 months
1 month
Question 33
“In comparison to adult auditory processes, newborns”
Answers:
hear nearly as well in the range of pitch and loudness of the human voice.
have poorer hearing at some pitches but the same hearing at all loudness levels.
have more acuity with high-pitched sounds.
have better auditory acuity at all pitches and loudness levels.
have less acuity at all pitches and loudness levels.
Question 34
Piaget believed that cognitive development is
Answers:
characterized by great irregularities.
shaped by the environment.
“an active process of exploration, manipulation, and examination.”
random and unpredictable.
based on personality factors.
Question 35
It is most accurate to describe the genetic material in the nucleus of the cell as
Answers:
“DNA, which contains chromosomes and genes.”
“chromosomes composed of DNA, which has segments called genes.”
“genes, which contain DNA and are found on chromosomes.”
“separate bodies called genes, chromosomes, and DNA.”
46 genes made up of DNA.
Question 36
“In research on infant perception, a common research strategy presents an infant with some stimulus until s/he stops responding to it. Then a new stimulus that differs from the first in some specific respect (e.g., color) is presented to see if the infant now responds. This strategy involves the use of what basic process?”
Answers:
preference
scanning
constancy
dishabituation
conditioning
Question 37
Current evidence suggests that full (adult-level) visual acuity is reached by what age?
Answers:
6 months
2 years
3-4 years
10-11 years
puberty
Question 38
Freud’s psychoanalytic theory of development
Answers:
emphasizes conscious drives rather than unconscious drives
proposes that the superego is the part of the personality that operates under the pleasure principle.
is characterized by psychosexual stages including the oral, anal, phallic,latency, and genital stages
proposes that defense mechanisms are the result of conscious efforts to resolve conflict.
Question 39
The great majority of neurons are apparently formed
Answers:
by two years after birth.
at birth.
in the third trimester of pregnancy.
between 10 and 18 weeks into gestation.
at conception.
Question 40
“According to Piaget, assimilation involves”
Answers:
changing a scheme as a result of new information taken in.
deriving generalizable schemes from specific experiences.
being shaped by the environment.
taking in an event or experience and making it part of a scheme.
an inborn need to put things in order.
Question 41
Which of the following statements describes the person’s phenotype?
Answers:
Maria’s 23rd chromosome pair is XX.
Mark’s blood type is AO.
Jill is a carrier of cystic fibrosis.
Larry has brown hair.
Mel has Trisomy 21.
Question 42
Fenson’s research on language indicates that children s first words appear by the age of
Answers:
5 months.
7 months.
9 months.
11 months.
12-13 months.
Question 43
Studies of a wide variety of language communities have revealed that
Answers:
“Babies vary in the way they react to new things, in their typical moods, in their rate of activity, in the regularity of their daily rhythms, etc. These variations usually go by the name of”
Asian children skip the prelinguistic phase.
Western children tend to use language before they understand it.
the prelinguistic phase is identical in all language communities.
there is no set pattern for language development.
all language development is genetically programmed.
Question 44?Piaget’s four stages, in order, are”
Answers:
“sensorimotor, preoperational, formal operational, concrete operational.”
“preoperational, sensorimotor, concrete operational, formal operational.”
“preoperational, concrete operational, formal operational, sensorimotor.”
“sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, formal operational.”
“formal operational, concrete operational, preoperational, sensorimotor.”
Question 45
“Intelligence tests were intended to measure ________, while achievement tests were designed to measure ________.”
Answers:
competence; performance
knowledge; aptitude
performance; competence
aptitude; competence
competence; knowledge
Question 46
What part of the brain becomes the focus of developmental processes during the 10-to-12-year-old neurological growth spurt?
Answers:
medulla
midbrain
frontal lobes
parietal lobes
Brainstem
Question 47
Whether a child’s development is controlled by innate factors or environmental influences is referred to as
Answers:
continuity vs. discontinuity
nature vs. nurture
maturation vs. genetics
idealism vs. rationalism
Question 48
The ecological perspective in developmental psychology
Answers:
uses evolutionary theory to explain inborn patterns of behaviors.
emphasizes teaching children about protection of the natural environment.
looks at the context in which the child grows up.
applies theories of animal behavior to understanding human behavior.
was first suggested by Hall.
Question 49
Which theorist is most strongly associated with nativist theories of language?
Answers:
Skinner
Freud
Chomsky
Piaget
Vygotsky
Question 50
“Babies vary in the way they react to new things, in their typical moods, in their rate of activity, in the regularity of their daily rhythms, etc. These variations usually go by the name of”
Answers:
temperament.
states.
habituation.
instincts.
conditioning.

Assignment – Capstone Project Change Proposal
Assignment – Capstone Project Change Proposal
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Assignment – Capstone Project Change Proposal
In this assignment, students will pull together the change proposal project components they have been working on throughout the course to create a proposal inclusive of sections for each content focus area in the course. At the conclusion of this project, the student will be able to apply evidence-based research steps and processes required as the foundation to address a clinically oriented problem or issue in future practice.
Students will develop a paper that includes the following information as it applies to the problem, issue, suggestion, initiative, or educational need profiled in the capstone change proposal:
Background
Problem statement
Purpose of the change proposal
PICOT
Literature search strategy employed
Evaluation of the literature
Applicable change or nursing theory utilized
Proposed implementation plan with outcome measures
Identification of potential barriers to plan implementation, and a discussion of how these could be overcome
Appendix section, if tables, graphs, surveys, educational materials, etc. are created
In this assignment, students will pull together the change proposal project components they have been working on throughout the course to create a proposal inclusive of sections for each content focus area in the course. At the conclusion of this project, the student will be able to apply evidence-based research steps and processes required as the foundation to address a clinically oriented problem or issue in future practice.
Students will develop a 1,250-1,500 word paper that includes the following information as it applies to the problem, issue, suggestion, initiative, or educational need profiled in the capstone change proposal:
1. Background
2. Problem statement
3. Purpose of the change proposal
4. PICOT
5. Literature search strategy employed
6. Evaluation of the literature
7. Applicable change or nursing theory utilized
8. Proposed implementation plan with outcome measures
9. Identification of potential barriers to plan implementation, and a discussion of how these could be overcome
10. Appendix section, if tables, graphs, surveys, educational materials, etc. are created
Review the feedback from your instructor on the Topic 3 assignment, PICOT Statement Paper, and Topic 6 assignment, Literature Review. Use the feedback to make appropriate revisions to the portfolio components before submitting.
Prepare this assignment according to the guidelines found in the APA Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center. An abstract is not required.
This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion.
You are required to submit this assignment to Turnitin. Please refer to the directions in the Student Success Center.
CONTENT:
Project Change Proposal
Student’s Name
Institution Affiliation
Introduction
A major problem for nursing establishments and staffers is the shortage of staff. Nurses are in very short supply, as older nurses retire and there aren’t enough to fill their ranks from below. This shortage has a knock-on effect for any service which utilizes nurses and their skills – hospitals and clinics cannot offer the same level of services and care which they would otherwise be able to offer to those who need it, meaning that people who need medical help will have to do with sub-standard level of it. The nurses themselves will necessarily face difficulties due to the shortage of staff, ranging from workloads which are too much for them to emotional and physical burnouts as they try to cope with this lack. Therefore, the paper proposes a practical solution in reference to the literatures covered on the same problem.
Background
The subject of appropriate nurse staffing is critical to patient care and safety. When hospitals are staffed with the optimal number of nurses, the cases of patient falls, heart attack, respiratory infections, and medication errors tend to reduce. In addition, the patient’s risk of dying within 60 days of hospital admission is likely to be low when nurses’ workload is low and vise-versa. A study carried by the American Nurses Association (ANA) revealed that 64% of nurses working in the adult medical emergency reported to work for extra hours due to insufficient staffing while 51% had to perform duties they are not trained or experienced (Carlson, 2017). In other studies conducted by ANA, lack of optimal nurse staffing in the hospital had the negative impact on unit admissions, discharge and transfers. Understaffing has a strong correlation with nurses’ demoralization, fatigue, a high level of staff turnover and absenteeism. The problem of nursing shortages in America is caused by several external factors such as unfavorable immigration policies, increased competition between public and private facilities, cyclical shortages of registered nurses (RNs), low nursing school capacities and the recession effect of the economy (Sharon Ann Myers, 2008). However, the situation is solvable since a sensitive sector such as healthcare should not be lulled into complacency.
Problem Statement
Nursing practices around the globe face a common problem of nurse staffing. Nursing is a pivotal section in the medical branch as nurses take significant care of patients in the hospital. Nurse staffing is quite a significant act as it reduces burnouts in nurses from the extensive range of nursing activities. Hospitals that have poor staffing regularly offer poor services and do not attend to their patients in the required manner. The reason behind the argument is that most of the nursing activities are quite demanding, which can easily cause one to have burnouts (Aiken, RN, Dougl, & Sloane, 2012). The paper gives a picot statement on the nursing problems that health centers with poor staffing face by prosing administrative intervention of improving the patient to nurse ratio. The solution to this problem will be guided by the PICOT structure before.
The Purpose of the Change Proposal
The aim is to improve the nurse-patient staff ratios to reduce instances of patients falls, heart attacks, medication errors and nurse burnouts as not only an approach to promote better care, but also a project to meet the statutory requirement as recommended Law. Federal regulation 42CFR 482.23(B) provides that all hospitals should have the sufficient number of competent and licensed nurses and other related personnel to a number that is reasonable proportionate to numbers of patients (Aiken, Clarke, Dougl, & Sloane, 2012). Th…

Drugs Prescription Assignment
Drugs Prescription Assignment
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Drugs Prescription Assignment
Question 1 A nurse is caring for a patient who is in severe pain and is receiving an opioid analgesic. Which of the following would be the nurse’s priority assessments?
A) Respiratory rate, seizure activity, and electrolytes
B) Pain intensity, respiratory rate, and level of consciousness
C) Liver function studies, pain intensity, and blood glucose level
D) Respiratory rate, pain intensity, and mental status
Drugs Prescription Assignment
Question 2 A nurse is caring for a patient who has been admitted with acute cocaine intoxication. Which of the following vital signs would the nurse expect to find initially when assessing the patient?
A) Blood pressure (BP): 98/50, pulse (P): 120, respirations (R): 40
B) BP: 130/88, P: 92, R: 28
C) BP: 150/90, P: 80, R: 16
D) BP: 170/98, P:110, R: 20
Question 3 A nurse is providing care for a patient who suffered extensive burns to his extremities during a recent industrial accident. Topical lidocaine gel has been ordered to be applied to the surfaces of all his burns in order to achieve adequate pain control. When considering this order, the nurse should be aware that
A) intravenous lidocaine may be preferable to topical application
B) lidocaine must be potentiated with another anesthetic in order to achieve pain control
C) pain relief is unlikely to be achieved due to the destruction of nerve endings in the burn site
D) there is a risk of systemic absorption of the lidocaine through the patient’s traumatized skin
Question 4 A patient has been prescribed zolpidem (Ambien) for short-term treatment of insomnia.Which of the following will the nurse include in a teaching plan for this patient? (Select all that apply.)
A) The drug should not be used for longer than 1 month.
B) It should be taken 1 hour to 90 minutes before going to bed
C) The drug does not cause sleepiness in the morning
D) One of the most common adverse effects of the drug is headache
E) It is available in both quick-onset and continuous-release oral forms
Question 5 A middle-aged patient was diagnosed with major depression after a suicide attempt several months ago and has failed to respond appreciably to treatment with SSRIs. As a result, his psychiatrist has prescribed phenelzine. When planning this patient’s subsequent care, what nursing diagnosis should the nurse prioritize?
A) Risk for Ineffective Peripheral Tissue Perfusion related to cardiovascular effects of phenelzine
B) Risk for Constipation related to decreased gastrointestinal peristalsis
C) Risk for Infection related to immunosuppressive effects of phenelzine
D) Risk for Injury related to drug–drug interactions or drug–nutrient interactions
Question 6 Morphine has been prescribed for a 28-year-old man with severe pain due to a back injury. The nurse will advise the patient to avoid
A) alcohol
B) vitamin C
C) fatty foods
D) dairy product
Drugs Prescription Assignment
Question 7 A 62-year-old woman has been prescribed a fentanyl transdermal patch for chronic cancer pain. The patient asks the nurse how long it will take for her to experience pain relief. The nurse will instruct the patient that she should feel pain relief in approximately
A) 6 hours
B) 12 hours
C) 24 hours
D) 32 hours
Question 8 A nurse is assigned to a patient who is taking lithium. Which of the following drug serum levels would indicate that the patient is at risk for adverse effects of the drug?
A) 0.3 mEq/L
B) 0.6 mEq/L
C) 1.7 mEq/L
D) 1.2 mEq/L
Question 9 A nurse who provides care on an acute medicine unit has frequently recommended the use of nicotine replacement gum for patients who express a willingness to quit smoking during their admission or following their discharge. For which of the following patients would nicotine gum be contraindicated?
A) A patient who received treatment for kidney failure due to an overdose of acetaminophen
B) A patient whose pulmonary embolism was treated with a heparin infusion
C) A patient with a history of angina who experienced a non-ST wave myocardial infarction
D) A patient whose stage III pressure ulcer required intravenous antibiotics and a vacuum dressing
Question 10 The wife of a patient who is taking haloperidol calls the clinic and reports that her husband has taken the first dose of the drug and it is not having a therapeutic effect. An appropriate response by the nurse would be
A) “Continue the prescribed dose. It may take several days to work.”
B) “I’ll ask the nurse practitioner if the dosage can be increased.”
C) “I’ll ask the nurse practitioner if the haloperidol can be discontinued and another drug started.”
D) “I’ll report this to the nurse practitioner and see if he will add another drug to enhance the effects of the haloperidol.”
Drugs Prescription Assignment
Question 11 A male patient has been brought to the emergency department during an episode of status epilepticus. Diazepam is to be administered intravenously. The nurse will be sure to
A) avoid the small veins in the dorsum of the hand or the wrist
B) inject the diazepam very quickly, 15 mg in 10 to15 seconds
C) administer after diluting the drug with gabapentin in intravenous solution
D) inject very slowly, no faster than 100 mg/minute
Question 12 A homeless man who is well known to care providers at the local hospital has been admitted to the emergency department after having a seizure outside a mall. The man is known to be a heavy alcohol user and is malnourished with a very low body mass index. How are this patient’s characteristics likely to influence possible treatment with phenytoin?
A) The patient will require oral phenytoin rather than intravenous administration
B) Phenytoin is contraindicated within 48 hours of alcohol use due to the possibility of paradoxical effects
C) The patient’s heavy alcohol use will compete with phenytoin for binding sites and he will require a higher-than-normal dose
D) The patient’s protein deficit will likely increase the levels of the free drug in his blood
Question 13 A patient has been admitted to the ICU because of multiple traumas due to a motor vehicle accident. The physician has ordered propofol (Diprivan) to be used for maintenance of sedation. Before administration of propofol, a priority assessment by the nurse would be to check for a history of
A) seizure disorders
B) low blood pressure
C) increased intraocular pressure
D) diabetic hyperlipidemia
Question 14 A patient who is experiencing withdrawal from heavy alcohol use have developed psychosis and been treated with haloperidol. Which of the following assessment findings should prompt the care team to assess the patient for neuroleptic malignant syndrome?
A) The patient demonstrates a significant increase in agitation after being given haloperidol
B) The patient develops muscle rigidity and a sudden, high fever
C) The patient complains of intense thirst and produces copious amounts of urine
D) The patient develops yellowed sclerae and intense pruritis (itchiness)
Question 15 A patient who has been taking buspirone (BuSpar) for 1 week calls the clinic and reports to the nurse that the drug is not working. The patient informs the nurse that she is still having symptoms of anxiety. The nurse will tell the patient that
A) she will report this to the physician immediately
B) the drug is not going to work for her and the medication needs to be changed
C) optimum relief of anxiety usually occurs after 3 to 4 weeks of treatment
D) it may take up to 6 months for the drug to relieve her anxiety
Question 16 A nurse works in a sleep disorder clinic and is responsible for administering medications to the patients. Which of the following patients would be most likely to receive zaleplon (Sonata)?
A) A 35-year-old man who is having difficulty falling asleep, but once asleep can stay asleep
B) A 20-year-old woman who will take the drug about once a week
C) A 52-year-old woman who needs to fall asleep quickly and stay asleep all night
D) A 46-year-old man who receives an antidepressant and needs a sleep aid
Question 17 A patient has a history of tonic-clonic seizures that have been successfully treated with phenytoin (Dilantin) for several years. Phenytoin achieves a therapeutic effect by
A) decreasing the influx of sodium into neurons.
B) increasing the levels of available glutamate.
C) simultaneously potentiating the effects of GABA and inhibiting reuptake.
D) by slowing the function of calcium channels within the neurological system.
Drugs Prescription Assignment
Question 18 A patient has been hospitalized for treatment of substance abuse after being arrested and jailed for the past 24 hours. The patient is experiencing severe muscle and abdominal cramps, seizures, and acute psychosis due to abrupt withdrawal. Which of the following drug classes is the most likely cause of these severe and potentially fatal withdrawal symptoms?
A) Amphetamines
B) Sedative–hypnotic drugs
C) Benzodiazepines
D) Opioids
Question 19 Which of the following would be an expected outcome in a patient who has been given atropine during a medical emergency?
A) Reduction of severe hypertension
B) Increased level of consciousness
C) Restoration of normal sinus rhythm
D) Resolution of respiratory acidosis
Question 20 A postsurgical patient has been provided with a morphine patient-controlled analgesic (PCA) but has expressed her reluctance to use it for fear of becoming addicted. How can the nurse best respond to this patient’s concerns?
A) “You don’t need to worry. It’s actually not true that you can get addicted to the medications we use in a hospital setting.”
B) “If you do become addicted, we’ll make sure to provide you with the support and resources necessary to help you with your recovery.”
C) “It’s important that you accept that your current need to control your pain is more important than fears of becoming addicted.”
D) “It is not uncommon to develop a dependence on pain medications, but this usually takes place over a long period and is not the same as addiction.”
Question 21 A nurse is talking to an 18-year-old patient who has had a seizure disorder since she was 10 years old and is taking phenytoin (Dilantin). The nurse should suggest that she take which of the following?
A) A potassium supplement
B) An iron supplement
C) Folic acid
D) Vitamin C
Question 22 Which of the following drugs used to treat anxiety would be appropriate for a patient who is a school teacher and is concerned about feeling sedated at work?
A) Alprazolam (Xanax)
B) Buspirone (BuSpar)
C) Diazepam (Valium)
D) Lorazepam (Ativan)
Question 23 A 64-year-old-patient has been prescribed lorazepam (Ativan) because of increasing periods of anxiety. The nurse should be careful to assess for
A) a diet high in fat
B) a history of current or past alcohol use
C) current nicotine use
D) a diet high in carbohydrates
Question 24 A 30-year-old woman is taking phenelzine (Nardil) 30mg PO tid. The nurse knows that at that dosage, the patient will need to be carefully monitored for
A) dizziness
B) diarrhea
C) increased secretions
D) facial flushing
Question 25 A nurse will be prepared to administer naloxone (Narcan) to a patient who has had an overdose of morphine. Repeated doses of Narcan will be necessary because Narcan
A) has less strength in each dose than do individual doses of morphine
B) has a shorter half-life than morphine
C) combined with morphine, increases the physiologic action of the morphine
D) causes the respiratory rate to decrease
Question 26 A nurse who works at an outpatient mental health clinic follows numerous clients who have schizophrenia, many of whom are being treated with olanzapine (Zyprexa). Which of the following clients likely has the highest susceptibility to the adverse effects of olanzapine?
A) A client who is morbidly obese and who has a sedentary lifestyle
B) A client who has type 1 diabetes and who practices poor glycemic control
C) A client who has a body mass index of 16.5 (underweight) and who smokes one pack of cigarettes daily
D) A client who was recently treated with intravenous antibiotics because of cellulitis in his lower leg
Question 27 A patient has been prescribed lithium therapy.Which of the following signs and symptoms will the nurse tell the patient to report immediately?
A) Increased urination
B) Muscle twitching
C) Hair loss
D) Increased thirst
Question 28 A trauma patient has been receiving frequent doses of morphine in the 6 days since his accident. This pattern of analgesic administration should prompt the nurse to carefully monitor the patient’s
A) urine specific gravity
B) skin integrity
C) bowel patterns.
D) core body temperature
Question 29 A patient with mild low back pain has been advised to take acetaminophen. The nurse will inform him that excessive intake of acetaminophen may result in
A) gastrointestinal distress
B) acute renal failure
C) cognitive deficits
D) liver damage.
Question 30 A 39-year-old patient who is having trouble sleeping is beginning drug treatment with zaleplon (Sonata). The nurse will be sure to ask the patient if she is taking
A) secobarbital (Seconal)
B) oxycodone (Percodan)
C) cimetidine (Zantac)
D) meperidine (Demerol)

Assignment: Argument Essay
Assignment: Argument Essay
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Assignment 1
For this assignment you are not required to write a complete draft of your Argument Essay. Instead, you are to select a topic for your Argument Essay and write a detailed outline of your essay based on the model in the instructions document.
Review the ArgumentativeOutlineAssignment_Instructions.docx document attached for additional instructions necessary to complete this assignment.
Review the Outline Grading Rubric to prepare your paper, but remember that I give full credit for completing the rough draft on time.
Review the Student_AnnotatedSample_Salvaging-the-Old-Growth-Forest.pdf file as mentioned in the instructions document for information regarding issue statements.
Review the Argumentative_ModelEssay.docx document to see a student example of a written and formatted essay.
Review the video (if needed) (Student) for instructions on how to submit your documents.Counterargument Paper
This paper assignment expands upon your Week One Assignment and prepares you for the Final Paper. The expansion is to learn to improve one’s argument after investigating and fairly representing the opposite point of view. The main new tasks are to revise your previous argument created in Week One, to present a counterargument (an argument for a contrary conclusion), and to develop an objection to your original argument.
Here are the steps to prepare to write the counterargument paper:
Begin reviewing your previous paper paying particular attention to suggestions for improvement made by your instructor.
Revise your argument, improving it as much as possible, accounting for any suggestions and in light of further material you have learned in the course. If your argument is inductive, make sure that it is strong. If your argument is deductive, make sure that it is valid.
Construct what you take to be the strongest possible argument for a conclusion contrary to the one you argued for in your Week One paper. This is your counterargument. This should be based on careful thought and appropriate research.
Consider the primary points of disagreement between the point of view of your original argument and that of the counterargument.
Think about what you take to be the strongest objection to your original argument and how you might answer the objection while being fair to both sides. Search in the Ashford University Library for quality academic sources that support some aspect of your argument or counterargument.
In your paper,
Present a revised argument in standard form, with each premise and the conclusion on a separate line.
Present a counterargument in standard form, with each premise and the conclusion on a separate line.
Provide support for each premise of your counterargument. Clarify the meaning of the premise and supporting evidence for the premise.
Pay special attention to those premises that could be seen as controversial. Evidence may include academic research sources, supporting arguments, or other ways of demonstrating the truth of the premise (for more ideas about how to support the truth of premises take a look at the instructor guidance for this week). This section should include at least one scholarly research source. For guidance about how to develop a conclusion see the Ashford Writing Center’s .
Explain how the conclusion of the counterargument follows from its premises. [One paragraph]
Discuss the primary points of disagreement between sincere and intelligent proponents of both sides. [One to two paragraphs]
For example, you might list any premises or background assumptions on which you think such proponents would disagree and briefly state what you see as the source of the disagreement, you could give a brief explanation of any reasoning that you think each side would find objectionable, or you could do a combination of these.
Present the best objectionto your original argument. Clearly indicate what part of the argument your objection is aimed at, and provide a paragraph of supporting evidence for the objection. Reference at least one scholarly research source. [One to two paragraphs]
See the “Practicing Effective Criticism” section of Chapter 9 of your primary textbook for more information about how to present an objection.
For further instruction on how to create arguments, see the and documents as well as the video .
For an example of how to complete this paper, take a look at the following Week Three . Let your instructor know if you have questions about how to complete this paper.
The Counterargument Paper
Must be 500 to 800 words in length (not including title and references pages) and formatted according to APA style as outlined in the Ashford Writing Center (for more information about using APA style, take a look at the webpage).
Must include a separate title page with the following:
Title of paper
Student’s name
Course name and number
Instructor’s name
Date submitted
Must use at least two scholarly sources in addition to the course text.
The offers additional guidance on appropriate source types. If you have questions about whether a specific source is appropriate for this assignment, please contact your instructor. Your instructor has the final say about the appropriateness of a specific source for a particular assignment.
Must document all sources in APA style as outlined in the Ashford Writing Center (for more information about how to create an APA reference list, take a look at the webpage).
Must include a separate references page that is formatted according to APA style as outlined in the Ashford Writing Center.
Carefully review the for the criteria that will be used to evaluate your assignment.

Discussion: Analyzing The Humanities
Discussion: Analyzing The Humanities
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Competency
Formulate, express, and support individual perspectives on diverse works and issues.
Instructions
You will act as a critic for some of the main subjects covered in the humanities. You will conduct a series of short, evaluative critiques of film, philosophy, literature, music, and myth. You will respond to five different prompts, and each response should include an analysis of the topics using terminology unique to that subject area and should include an evaluation as to why the topic stands the test of time. The five prompts are as follows:
Choose a film and offer an analysis of why it is an important film, and discuss it in terms of film as art. Your response should be more than a summary of the film.
Imagine you had known Plato and Aristotle and you had a conversation about how we fall in love. Provide an overview of how Plato would explain falling in love, and then provide an overview of how Aristotle might explain falling in love.
Compare and contrast the two poems below:
LOVE’S INCONSISTENCY
I find no peace, and all my war is done;
I fear and hope, I burn and freeze likewise
I fly above the wind, yet cannot rise;
And nought I have, yet all the world I seize on;
That looseth, nor locketh, holdeth me in prison, And holds me not, yet can I ’scape no wise;
Nor lets me live, nor die, at my devise,
And yet of death it giveth none occasion.
Without eyes I see, and without tongue I plain;
I wish to perish, yet I ask for health;
I love another, and yet I hate myself;
I feed in sorrow, and laugh in all my pain;
Lo, thus displeaseth me both death and life,
And my delight is causer of my grief.
Petrarch
After great pain a formal feeling comes—
The nerves sit ceremonious like tombs;
The stiff Heart questions—was it He that bore?
And yesterday—or centuries before?
The feet mechanical go round
A wooden way
Of ground or air or ought
Regardless grown,
A quartz contentment like a stone.
This is the hour of lead
Remembered if outlived
As freezing persons recollect
The snow—
First chill, then stupor, then
The letting go
Emily Dickinson.
4. Compare and contrast these two pieces of music:
5. Explain in classical terms why a modern character is a hero. Choose from either Luke Skywalker, Indiana Jones, Bilbo Baggins, Harry Potter, Katniss Everdeen, or Ender Wiggins.