Nursing

Psychopathology Through the Eyes of Faith
Psychopathology Through the Eyes of Faith
Review Butman and Yarhouse’s article “Psychopathology Through the Eyes of Faith: Integrative Reflections for the Classroom and Beyond” and briefly describe their approach to teaching psychopathology. Identify two or three elements you find interesting about their method of teaching psychopathology and explain why they are important to you.
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Question 1
1.
All of the following are reasons for people to take part in cybersex, except for
Answer
Anonymity
Ease and convenience
Resolving marital problems
Strong sexual fantasies
5 points
Question 2
1.
Net Nanny is
Answer
A pornographic website
A way to block children’s access to pornography
The name of the 1995 U.S. Senate bill that would prohibit making pornographic material available to children under 18
A kind of Trojan that records keystrokes on pornographic websites
5 points
Question 3
1.
Most people consider online affairs just as real as offline affairs because
Answer
They involve the deviant use of the computer
All fantasies about sex turn into reality
A physical sexual act usually takes place
They can lead to marital discord and divorce
5 points
Question 4
1.
When robbers consider the selection of a target, they consider how lucrative an establishment is and _____________
Answer
The personality of the potential victims
The fame gained from the robbery
The risk of arrest
Who to frame for the job
5 points
Question 5
1.
If a person kills him or herself after murdering another, it is called ________ suicide.
Answer
Revenge
Surrealistic
Apologetic
Atonement
5 points
Question 6
1.
At what point in an inmate’s stay at prison are they most likely to commit suicide?
Answer
After several years of a long sentence
After denial of a parole
When transferred from a local to a state prison
During the initial phase of imprisonment
5 points
Question 7
1.
If deviant behavior cannot be classified as psychotic or neurotic, a psychiatrist will classify it as a __________disorder.
Answer
Psychotic
Personality
Neurotic
Organic
5 points

Assignment: Randomized Controlled Trial
Assignment: Randomized Controlled Trial
Statistical Technique in Review
Most research reports describe the subjects or participants who comprise the study sample. This description of the sample is called the sample characteristics, which may be presented in a table and/or the narrative of the article. The sample characteristics are often presented for each of the groups in a study (i.e., intervention and control groups). Descriptive statistics are calculated to generate sample characteristics, and the type of statistic conducted depends on the level of measurement of the demographic variables included in a study (Grove, Burns, & Gray, 2013). For example, data collected on gender is nominal level and can be described using frequencies, percentages, and mode. Measuring educational level usually produces ordinal data that can be described using frequencies, percentages, mode, median, and range. Obtaining each subject’s specific age is an example of ratio data that can be described using mean, range, and standard deviation. Interval and ratio data are analyzed with the same statistical techniques and are sometimes referred to as interval/ratio-level data in this text.
Research Article
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Source
Oh, E. G., Yoo, J. Y., Lee, J. E., Hyun, S. S., Ko, I. S., & Chu, S. H. (2014). Effects of a three-month therapeutic lifestyle modification program to improve bone health in postmenopausal Korean women in a rural community: A randomized controlled trial. Research in Nursing & Health, 37(4), 292–301.
Introduction
Oh and colleagues (2014) conducted a randomized controlled trial (RCT) to examine the effects of a therapeutic lifestyle modification (TLM) intervention on the knowledge, self-efficacy, and behaviors related to bone health in postmenopausal women in a rural community. The study was conducted using a pretest-posttest control group design with a sample of 41 women randomly assigned to either the intervention (n = 21) or control group (n = 20). “The intervention group completed a 12-week, 24-session TLM program of individualized health monitoring, group health education, exercise, and calcium–vitamin D supplementation. Compared with the control group, the intervention group showed significant increases in knowledge and self-efficacy and improvement in diet and exercise after 12 weeks, providing evidence that a comprehensive TLM program can be effective in improving health behaviors to maintain bone health in women at high risk of osteoporosis” (Oh et al., 2014, p. 292).
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Relevant Study Results
“Bone mineral density (BMD; g/cm2) was measured by dual energy x-ray absorptiometry (DXA) with the use of a DEXXUM T machine?.?.?.?.?A daily calibration inspection was performed. The error rate for these scans is less than 1%. Based on the BMD data, the participants were classified into three groups: osteoporosis (a BMD T-score less than ?2.5); osteopenia (a BMD T-score between ?2.5 and ?1.0); and normal bone density (a BMD T-score higher than ?1.0)” (Oh et al. 2014, p. 295).
“Characteristics of Participants
The study participants were 51–83 years old, and the mean age was 66.2 years (SD = 8.2). The mean BMI was 23.8 kg/m2 (SD = 3.2). Most participants did not consume alcoholic drinks, and all were nonsmokers. Antihypertensives and analgesics such as aspirin and acetaminophen were the most common medications taken by the participants. Less than 20% of participants had a regular routine of exercise at least three times per week. Daily calcium- and vitamin D-rich food intake (e.g., dairy products, fish oil, meat, and eggs) was low. Seventy-five percent (n = 31) of the participants had osteoporosis or osteopenia. There were no differences in the baseline characteristics of the groups (Table 2). The adherence rate to the TLM program was 99.6%” (Oh et al., 2014, p. 296).

Assignment: Patient Confidentiality
Assignment: Patient Confidentiality
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**Read the Case Study (ATTACHED) & Question 1 Below. Decide whether you agree with the answer or not and find 2 academic sources to support your answer.(IN TEXT CITATIONS & PROPER REFERNCING) **
Question 1: Based on ethical principles and precedents Ashley absolutely has a duty to warn as Kendrick’s nurse. Although Ashley has to respect patient confidentiality, when a patient makes a direct threat against someone else the practitioner is legally obligated to warn the victim or notify the correct authorities. According to the Journal of the American Academy of Psychiatry and the Law: Assignment: Patient Confidentiality
“The legal duty of a psychiatrist or psychotherapist to warn an identifiable victim of a patient’s serious threat of harm has been well recognized in U.S. jurisprudence and clinical practice since the Tarasoff decision of the Supreme Court of California in 1976.” (Felthous, 2006) Assignment: Patient Confidentiality
Based on this, Ashley should immediately notify Kendrick’s psychiatrist of his threats and potential intentions upon discharge. The medical team can then decide what the best, and safest, course of action is for Kendrick’s treatment. If Kendrick is still feeling such intense animosity toward his ew-mother-in-law, it is possible he is still suffering from paranoid delusions. He may need an increased dosage of medication or prolonged in-patient therapy before living on his own. It is in the best interest of both the patient, his family, and the general public to take Kendrick’s threats seriously. (WEISS) Assignment: Patient Confidentiality
Felthous, A.R. (2006). Warning a Potential Vitctim of a Person’s Dangerousness: Clinician’s Duty or Victim’s Right? Journal of the American Academy of Psychiatry and the Law, 34(3), 338-348. Assignment: Patient Confidentiality
Question 2: It is evident as we proceed through this course there are several overarching guidelines that nurses must follow to protect the patient and provide the best care. In psychiatric nursing especially, it is important for the nurse to keep the privacy of the patient and details and information about them confidential. “Confidentiality, or nondisclosure of information, involves limits on the communications on “any information a nurse obtains about a patient in the context of the nurse-patient relationship” (Butts & Rich, 2016, p. 335).
In the case of Kendrick the nurse is required to keep information confidential to anyone that does not have permission to receive information. But, there are exceptions to confidentiality when “patients are a threat to themselves (suicide, for example) or to identifiable others” (Butts & Rich, 2016, p. 335). In this case, I think that the nurse does have a duty to warn because she would be protecting an identifiable individual, his ex-mother-in-law. In this case, Kendrick does not specifically threat her but his words do provide some evidence that she might be in danger. Provision 3.1 “Protection of the Rights of Privacy and Confidentiality” focuses on keeping the privacy and trust between a nurse and patient. A large part of confidentiality is trust and nurses do not want to lose that trust with a patient, especially with a patient with psychiatric conditions. But in this case, I think it turns to duty to warn and protecting the identified individual. Assignment: Patient Confidentiality
Butts, J. B., & Rich, K. L. (2016). Nursing Ethics: Across the Curriculum and Into Practice (Fourth ed.). Burlington, MA: Jones & Bartlett Learning.
** **Read Question 2 Below. Decide if the answer is accurate, why or why not? & find 2 academic sources to support your answer.(IN TEXT CITATIONS & PROPER REFERENCING) ** Assignment: Patient Confidentiality
My doctor also explained that birth control pills “trick the body into thinking it is pregnant.” She explained that women do not normally ovulate when they are pregnant. Can you explain to me why a pregnant woman does not ovulate? How is this related to how the birth control pill works?
Question 2: Ovulation occurs when an egg is released from the ovaries down the fallopian tube to be possibly fertilized. If the egg (or eggs) are fertilized, it will continue on its journey to the uterus to plant in the uterine lining and continue to grow. The body will no longer ovulate because all functions will focus on caring for the egg that already implanted. All further periods will then cease in order to keep its uterine lining to be able to provide a favorable environment for the embryo. When a women takes a birth control pill, it alters the levels of hormones in the body. The birth control pill stops the body from releasing follicle stimulating hormones (FSH) and luteinizing hormones (LH). FSH would normally cause an egg to grow by stimulating the ovarian follicle and LH is what would normally cause ovulation.
**Read Question 3 Questions Below. Respond to each answer & find 2 academic sources to support your answer. (IN TEXT CITATIONS & PROPER REFERENCING) **
Question 1: One of the topics we learned that helped me through a personal situation this semester was related to bone structure, fractures and repair. When my 5-year old stepson broke both arms a few weeks ago, this was understandably terrifying for all of us parents. While getting x-rays, the doctor told us that he had broken both bones in one arm and one bone in the other, which I knew to be the radius and ulna (Amerman 211). As such, he received a hard cast up over his elbow on one arm and up to his elbow on the second. The doctor also stated that the growth plate was not affected by either break. I knew that he was referring to the epiphyseal plate, which is found between the diaphysis (shaft) and epiphysis (head) of the long bones in a developing skeleton (Amerman 260). The hyaline cartilage of an epiphyseal plate is replaced with bone when bone growth is complete. As we learned in our textbook, damage to the growth plate is particularly concerning in children as even minor injury can cause lifelong consequences, such as differences in limb length, limb deformities and early onset arthritis (Amerman 260). It was a great relief to all of us to know that Brady’s injuries should not cause any long-term damage.
When we returned 2 weeks later to take follow up x-rays, the doctor noticed that there was actually a second fracture in the arm that we initially thought to only have one. As his cast was not placed up above his elbow initially and the area was not stabilized, the bone had already begun to heal crooked and appeared bowed out in the x-ray. Obviously, we were at first quite concerned about this as well. What we were told and what I already knew from A&P was that his bone would continue to grow and remodel and actually straighten itself back out over time. His bone initially not healing properly was not anything we should worry too much about as the body is resilient, particularly in young children and the issue would take care of itself. This knowledge was a great comfort to all of us. (HIGGINS)
Question 2: This course has helped me to learn a lot about myself, my health, and my experience. One specific example that has stuck out for me so far is around bone development. In my previous life as a teacher, one of my favorite students was born without ulnas. Until this class, I didn’t know what that meant exactly, besides that it was a bone of the arm. This led to my student’s arms coming down to almost a point on both, with the absence of wrists, hands, and most fingers. I know that the styloid process were the endpoint of my student’s arms (Amerman 243). I imagine this may have also impacted how the radius articulates with the humerus. I don’t know what caused him to have an issue in bone development specific to the ulnas. However, I do know that the ulna is a long bone, with ossification beginning in utero through endochondral ossification and grows distally from the radius (Radiopaedia). The lack of ulnas could be related to anything from the osteoblasts, which build bones, osteoclasts, which aid in bone resorption, or an issue with the epiphyseal plates of any existing part of the ulna he may have had. Although I haven’t been able to find images or stories that very closely depict a similar scenario, Ulnar hypoplasia does seem to resemble
what I remember (Malik S. & Afzal M.)
Even with missing ulnas, my student rode his bike to school, played soccer, climbed ropes courses, and typed 5 paragraph essays with his elbows. Literally, the only thing I ever did for him was open a glue stick. It was amazing and inspiring. (CLARK)
Question 3: Have you ever had a dream that startled you so much that you reached out to hit something? My patient sure did and because we are stuck in twin beds and he was close to the wall he ended up fracturing his left middle phalanx.
He came into the clinic the morning after complaining of swelling to his left little finger and described what lead to the incident. I did not suspect a fracture to the finger but because the swelling was so severe and the extreme tenderness I completed an x-ray to be safe. As chapter 7 discussed the fingers on each hand are comprised of 14 bones including the proximal, middle, and distal phalanx except the thumb which is missing the distal phalanx. I am suprised that he was able to hit the wall in a way that only caused a fracture to the one bone. I was able to treat the injury in clinic with just a finger brace to protect the bone and prevent flexion and extenstion of the joint. (MARTINEZ)
**Read Question 4 Questions Below. Respond to each answer & find 2 academic sources to support your answer. (IN TEXT CITATIONS & PROPER REFERNCING) **
Question 4: A processed food product that I regularly eat is peanut butter. Right now, the brand I have in my pantry is Crunchy No Stir Peanut Butter Spread, which I purchased at Trader Joe’s. The ingredients include roasted peanuts, powdered sugar (cane sugar, cornstarch), palm oil, and sea salt. The goal of most food additives is to maintain or improve a foods safety, freshness, taste, texture, or appearance, but sometimes food additives can be harmful to our health, especially when eaten in large quantities.
Sugar: This additive is used to create flavor in the product.
Salt: This is used to enhance flavor and preserve the product.
Palm oil: a more healthful alternative to hydrogenated oils, this additive is a semisolid at room temperature. The saturated fats help to give no-stir peanut butter its relatively solid texture.
Although this product does contain additives, it does not have a huge list and most of the ingredients are familiar which is always a good sign. The major additive is palm oil, which is still better than the hydrogenated oils that are added to other types of nut butters. Hydrogenated oils increase shelf life, but are also known to raise the risk of cancer, diabetes, and heart disease. I will definitely continue to eat peanut butter; however, I will now consider purchasing a different version of the product. Stir peanut butter, where oil separates and rises to the top of the tube, is a more natural alternative.(SORGESTIN)
Question 4-1: Although I know they’re not a natural food and heavily processed, I absolutely love Kraft singles American cheese slices. No cheese is better for making grilled cheese sandwiches in my opinion. The ingredient list for Kraft singles is as follows:, Cheddar cheese (milk, cheese culture, salt, enzymes), Whey, Water, Protein concentrate, Milk, Sodium citrate, Calcium phosphate, Milkfat, Gelatin, Salt, Sodium phosphate, Lactic acid as a preservative, Annatto and paprika extract (color), Enzymes, Vitamin A palmitate, Cheese culture, Vitamin D3.
Sodium citrates are generally used as acidity regulators in food and drinks. They also as emulsifiers for oils, which enables cheeses to melt without becoming greasy (Modernist Pantry, 2018). Calcium phosphate helps thicken, stabilize and firm processed foods. It’s also used to help blend oil-and-water based ingredients, prevent caking, retain moisture, regulate acidity and treat flour (Bruso, 2017). Sodium phosphate has many properties as a food additive. It’s used as a texturizer, which changes the appearance or feel of the food while increasing shelf life. It can also be used as an emulsifier (Robinson, 2017). Despite these food additives, I will definitely continue to eat Kraft singles. I try to eat healthy and focus on whole, natural foods… but nothing beats Kraft singles in a grilled cheese!(WEISS)
**Read Question 4 Questions Below. Respond to each answer & find 2 academic sources to support your answer. (IN TEXT CITATIONS & PROPER REFERENCING) **
Question 4: A processed food product that I regularly eat is peanut butter. Right now, the brand I have in my pantry is Crunchy No Stir Peanut Butter Spread, which I purchased at Trader Joe’s. The ingredients include roasted peanuts, powdered sugar (cane sugar, cornstarch), palm oil, and sea salt. The goal of most food additives is to maintain or improve a foods safety, freshness, taste, texture, or appearance, but sometimes food additives can be harmful to our health, especially when eaten in large quantities.
Sugar: This additive is used to create flavor in the product.
Salt: This is used to enhance flavor and preserve the product.
Palm oil: a more healthful alternative to hydrogenated oils, this additive is a semisolid at room temperature. The saturated fats help to give no-stir peanut butter its relatively solid texture.
Although this product does contain additives, it does not have a huge list and most of the ingredients are familiar which is always a good sign. The major additive is palm oil, which is still better than the hydrogenated oils that are added to other types of nut butters. Hydrogenated oils increase shelf life, but are also known to raise the risk of cancer, diabetes, and heart disease. I will definitely continue to eat peanut butter; however, I will now consider purchasing a different version of the product. Stir peanut butter, where oil separates and rises to the top of the tube, is a more natural alternative.(SORGESTIN)
Question 4-1: Although I know they’re not a natural food and heavily processed, I absolutely love Kraft singles American cheese slices. No cheese is better for making grilled cheese sandwiches in my opinion. The ingredient list for Kraft singles is as follows:, Cheddar cheese (milk, cheese culture, salt, enzymes), Whey, Water, Protein concentrate, Milk, Sodium citrate, Calcium phosphate, Milkfat, Gelatin, Salt, Sodium phosphate, Lactic acid as a preservative, Annatto and paprika extract (color), Enzymes, Vitamin A palmitate, Cheese culture, Vitamin D3.
Sodium citrates are generally used as acidity regulators in food and drinks. They also as emulsifiers for oils, which enables cheeses to melt without becoming greasy (Modernist Pantry, 2018). Calcium phosphate helps thicken, stabilize and firm processed foods. It’s also used to help blend oil-and-water based ingredients, prevent caking, retain moisture, regulate acidity and treat flour (Bruso, 2017). Sodium phosphate has many properties as a food additive. It’s used as a texturizer, which changes the appearance or feel of the food while increasing shelf life. It can also be used as an emulsifier (Robinson, 2017). Despite these food additives, I will definitely continue to eat Kraft singles. I try to eat healthy and focus on whole, natural foods… but nothing beats Kraft singles in a grilled cheese!(WEISS)
DUE 3/25/18
7AM NEW YORK TIME ZONE
175 WORD MINIMUM FOR EACH QUESTION
USE IN TEXT CITATIONS
MLA FORMAT

Assignment: Upper GI Bleeding
Assignment: Upper GI Bleeding
Question 19
The most common disorder associated with upper GI bleeding is:
a. diverticulosis.
b. hemorrhoids.
c. esophageal varices.
d. cancer.
Question 20
A 3-month-old female develops colicky pain, abdominal distention, and diarrhea after drinking cow’s milk. The best explanation for her symptoms is:
a. Deficiency of bile that stimulates digestive secretions and bowel motility
b. Excess of amylase, which increases the breakdown of starch and causes an osmotic diarrhea
c. Overgrowth of bacteria from undigested fat molecules, which leads to gas formation and de creased bowel motility
d. Excess of undigested lactose in her digestive tract, resulting in increased fluid movement into the digestive lumen and increased bowel motility
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Question 21
A 55-year-old female has general symptoms of gallstones but is also jaundiced. IV cholangiography would most likely reveal that the gallstones are obstructing the:
a. Intrahepatic bile canaliculi
b. Gallbladder
c. Cystic duct
d. Common bile duct
Question 22
A 1-week-old female is brought to her pediatrician for abdominal distention and unstable temperature. Physical examination reveals bradycardia and apnea. Tests reveal hypoxic injury to the bowel resulting in bacterial invasion and perforation. This condition is referred to as:
a. Infective enteropathy
b. Necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC)
c. Mucoviscidosis
d. Ileus
Question 23
For the patient experiencing esophageal reflux, the nurse would expect which sphincter to be malfunctioning?
a. Pyloric
b. Lower esophageal
c. Upper esophageal
d. Gastric
Question 24
Cholecystitis is inflammation of the gallbladder wall usually caused by:
a. accumulation of bile in the hepatic duct.
b. obstruction of the cystic duct by a gall-stone.
c. accumulation of fat in the wall of the gallbladder.
d. viral infection of the gallbladder.
Question 25
A 6-month-old male infant is brought to the ER after the sudden development of abdominal pain, irritability, and vomiting followed by passing of “currant jelly” stool. Ultrasound reveals intestinal obstruction in which the ileum collapsed through the ileocecal valve and invaginated into the large intestine. This type of obstruction is referred to as:
a. Prolapse
b. Pyloric stenosis
c. Intussusception
d. Imperforation
Question 26
A 22-year-old male underwent brain surgery to remove a tumor. Following surgery, he experienced a peptic ulcer. His ulcer is referred to as a(n) _____ ulcer.
a. Infectious
b. Cushing
c. Ischemic
d. Curling
Question 27
Chronic gastritis is classified according to the:
a. severity.
b. location of lesions.
c. patient’s age.
d. signs and symptoms.
Question 28
Reflux esophagitis is defined as a(n):
a. Immune response to gastroesophageal reflux
b. Inflammatory response to gastroesophageal reflux
c. Congenital anomaly
d. Secretory response to hiatal hernia
Question 29
The cardinal signs of small bowel obstruction are:
a. Vomiting and distention
b. Diarrhea and excessive thirst
c. Dehydration and epigastric pain
d. Abdominal pain and rectal bleeding
Question 30
The nurse assessing the patient with biliary atresia would expect to find which primary clinical manifestation?
a. Anemia
b. Jaundice
c. Hypobilirubinemia
d. Ascites
Question 31
A 20-year-old male was recently diagnosed with lactose intolerance. He eats an ice cream cone and develops diarrhea. His diarrhea can be classified as _____ diarrhea.
a. Motility
b. Hypotonic
c. Secretory
d. Osmotic
Question 32
Which of the following symptoms would help a health care provider distinguish between ulcerative colitis and Crohn disease?
a. Pattern of remission/exacerbations
b. Abdominal pain
c. Malabsorption
d. Diarrhea
Question 33
A 45-year-old male complains of heartburn after eating and difficulty swallowing. He probably has:
a. Pyloric stenosis
b. Hiatal hernia
c. Gastric cancer
d. Achalasia
Question 34
The exocrine portion of the pancreas contains:
a. alpha cells.
b. beta cells.
c. acinar cells.
d. islets of Langerhans.
Question 35
Outbreaks of hepatitis _____ often occur in young children attending day care centers and can be attributed to poor hand washing.
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D

Discuss: Increasing subepithelial bicarbonate production
Discuss: Increasing subepithelial bicarbonate production
Question 8
A 40-year-old male develops an intestinal obstruction related to protrusion of the intestine through the inguinal ring. This condition is referred to as:
a. Intussusception
b. A volvulus
c. A hernia
d. Adhesions
Question 9
A 60-year-old male presents with GI bleeding and abdominal pain. He reports that he takes NSAIDs daily to prevent heart attack. Tests reveal that he has a peptic ulcer. The most likely cause of this disease is:
a. Increasing subepithelial bicarbonate production
b. Accelerating the H+ (proton) pump in parietal cells
c. Inhibiting mucosal prostaglandin synthesis
d. Stimulating a shunt of mucosal blood flow
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Question 10
Acute pancreatitis often manifests with pain to which of the following regions?
a. Right lower quadrant
b. Right upper quadrant
c. Epigastric
d. Suprapubic
Question 11
A 60-year-old male is diagnosed with cancer of the esophagus. Which of the following factors most likely contributed to his disease?
a. Reflux esophagitis
b. Intestinal parasites
c. Ingestion of salty foods
d. Frequent use of antacids
Question 12
The primary complication of enterocolitis associated with Hirschsprung disease is related to which finding?
a. Fecal impaction
b. Pancreatic insufficiency
c. Hyperactive peristalsis
d. Ileal atresia
Discuss: Increasing subepithelial bicarbonate production
Question 13
The most common cause of chronic vascular insufficiency among the elderly is:
a. Anemia
b. Aneurysm
c. Lack of nutrition in gut lumen
d. Atherosclerosis
Question 14
The most common clinical manifestation of portal hypertension is _____ bleeding.
a. rectal
b. duodenal
c. esophageal
d. intestinal
Question 15
A 54-year-old male is diagnosed with peptic ulcer disease.This condition is most likely caused by:
a. Hereditary hormonal imbalances with high gastrin levels
b. Breaks in the mucosa and presence of corrosive secretions
c. Decreased vagal activity and vascular engorgement
d. Gastric erosions related to high ammonia levels and bile reflux

Discuss: Dimensions Of Human Behavior
Discuss: Dimensions Of Human Behavior
You are required to write 1 page per question. Cite the material from the textbook, videos and power points to justify for your reflections.
Case Study Reflection Question – Chapter 2 – Dimensions of Human Behavior Person in the Environment (Green Book) Elizabeth D. Hutchinson
1. Like individuals in other professional groups, social workers tend to develop and use language among themselves that others not associated with the profession might consider being ‘jargonese’ or difficult to understand. Although Bethany is planning to go to nursing school, she is very much interested in what social workers do and is curious about how a social worker would assess the problems in her family. Explain to Bethany, in lay person’s language, the 8 theoretical perspectives and how each of the theoretical perspectives can help a social worker understand different aspects of her family’s situation.
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Chapter 5: The Psychological Person: Cognition, Emotion, and Self – Dimensions of Human Behavior Person in the Environment (Green Book) Elizabeth D. Hutchinson
1. Of all the theories discussed in the chapter, choose one from each category (self in relationships, concept of stress, coping and adaptation) that you think might be MOST helpful in understanding Dan’s situation. Provide a rationale as to why you think these particular theories would be most helpful and discuss how you would use each of the theories that you’ve selected in Dan’s case.
Videos:
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You are required to write 1 page per question. Cite the material from the textbook, videos and power points to justify for your reflections.
Case Study Reflection Question – Chapter 2 – Dimensions of Human Behavior Person in the Environment (Green Book) Elizabeth D. Hutchinson
1. Like individuals in other professional groups, social workers tend to develop and use language among themselves that others not associated with the profession might consider being ‘jargonese’ or difficult to understand. Although Bethany is planning to go to nursing school, she is very much interested in what social workers do and is curious about how a social worker would assess the problems in her family. Explain to Bethany, in lay person’s language, the 8 theoretical perspectives and how each of the theoretical perspectives can help a social worker understand different aspects of her family’s situation.
Chapter 5: The Psychological Person: Cognition, Emotion, and Self – Dimensions of Human Behavior Person in the Environment (Green Book) Elizabeth D. Hutchinson
1. Of all the theories discussed in the chapter, choose one from each category (self in relationships, concept of stress, coping and adaptation) that you think might be MOST helpful in understanding Dan’s situation. Provide a rationale as to why you think these particular theories would be most helpful and discuss how you would use each of the theories that you’ve selected in Dan’s case.
Videos:
(

Assignment: Biomolecules And Nutrition
Assignment: Biomolecules And Nutrition
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You probably want to live a long and healthy life on this earth. What are you willing to do to make that possible? Here is an assignment that can improve the quality of what you eat, and hence, the quality of your life. Let’s develop the rudiments of a maintenance diet for you—a desirable, workable, realistic, non-faddish maintenance diet—one you follow permanently. You have several reference sources:
– the Bible’s many prescriptive texts regarding nutrition (ignore “descriptive” texts)
– your textbook’s chapter on biomolecules; how they are built and used
– the course Presentation entitled “Biomolecules and Nutrition” Assignment: Biomolecules And Nutrition
– trustworthy sources such as
– USDA MyPlate:
– the Mayo Clinic website.
– Very Well website (David Katz’ site):
– Web MD:
The foods you select will contain the same classes of biomolecules that you read about in your textbook: carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, nucleic acids, vitamins, and minerals. Use the following procedure to build your diet.
For your Thread:
1. Click on the link below. This will give you a Word document “work table” to add your foods to. You may wish to print a copy for research purposes. Assignment: Biomolecules And Nutrition
2. Go to the “My Plate Check List Calculator Enter your data to determine how many calories your daily diet should contain. Record this number in your work table.
3. Now go to the USDA MyPlate web site: In the Table, about the middle of the page click on the box representing your caloric needs. Some serving amount data will pop up allocated into 5 food groups. Assignment: Biomolecules And Nutrition
4. Record the suggested serving amounts in your work table to give quantitative values to the categories you will build your diet around.
“What Should I Eat?” – Work Table:
Total Calories:
/per day
Food Group:
Biomolecules in this Group in Order of Relative Biomass*
Serving Amount:
My Food Choices:
10 Fruits
Carbs, Proteins, Oils
My first food, my second food, my third food, my fourth food, etc.
12 Vegetables
Carbs, Proteins, Oils
12 Grains
Carbs, Proteins, Oils
9 Proteins
Proteins, Fats, Oils
7 Dairy Items
Depends on the Food
*as a generalization
5. Start to choose foods using the guideline comments given on the webpage. Use other web pages listed above to get commentary on foods you think (!) are healthy for you. Here are two useful ones to give you ideas:
,
6. Delete the sample foods listed in the “Fruits” category. They are there to show you the format for your own additions. List specific foods that you would eat for each group according the numbers indicated in the first column. The second column of the table will help you with your category accuracy. Do not reuse any food under a second category. You will thus select 50 foods for your diet—not a huge variety, but it’s a start! “Leafy greens” or “seafood” are food categories, not specific foods.
7. “Mouse over the upper left-hand corner of the table to find the tiny navigation box and click on it. This highlights (“selects”) the whole table. Copy it to your computer’s “clipboard”. You can now paste this table into the “Message Box” of your open “Thread” in the discussion board. Along with your table, you may submit up to two prescriptive Bible passages that you feel most constrain your dietary thinking.
Hints:
• Your goal is always to improve your own list. Please include about 70 words for your diet (50 foods, some hyphenated as needed) with space left over for two Bible verses for a total of 120 words. That’s your limit!
• Foods differ in their density of a wide variety of nutrients as compared to just the calories they give you. Which sweet would be better for you: hard candy or a fig bar?
• What is in the food item you’ve selected? Check out: to find out.
• Suppose Mayo Clinic wisdom and Biblical wisdom seem to conflict. Which source will you defer to and why?

Assignment: Cholinesterase Inhibitors
Assignment: Cholinesterase Inhibitors
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QUESTION 60
A group of nursing students seeks further clarification from the PMHNP on how cholinesterase inhibitors are beneficial for Alzheimer’s disease patients. What is the appropriate response?
A. Acetylcholine (ACh) destruction is inhibited by blocking the enzyme acetylcholinesterase. B. Effectiveness of these agents occurs in all stages of Alzheimer’s disease. C. By increasing acetylcholine, the decline in some patients may be less rapid. D. Both “A” & “C.”
QUESTION 61
The PMHNP is assessing a patient who presents with elevated levels of brain amyloid as noted by positron emission tomography (PET). What other factors will the PMHNP consider before prescribing medication for this patient, and what medication would the PMHNP want to avoid given these other factors?
A. ApoE4 genotype and avoid antihistamines if possible B. Type 2 diabetes and avoid olanzapine C. Anxiety and avoid methylphenidate D. Both “A” & “B”
QUESTION 62
A 72-year-old male patient is in the early stages of Alzheimer’s disease. The PMHNP determines that improving memory is a key consideration in selecting a medication. Which of the following would be an appropriate choice?
A. Rivastigmine (Exelon) B. Donepezil (Aricept) C. Galantamine (Razadyne) D. All of the above
QUESTION 63
A 63-year-old patient presents with the following symptoms. The PMHNP determines which set of symptoms warrant prescribing a medication? Select the answer that is matched with an appropriate treatment.
A. Reduced ability to remember names is most problematic, and an appropriate treatment option is memantine. B. Impairment in the ability to learn and retain new information is most problematic, and an appropriate treatment option would be donepezil. C. Reduced ability to find the correct word is most problematic, and an appropriate treatment option would be memantine. D. Reduced ability to remember where objects are most problematic, and an appropriate treatment option would be donepezil.
QUESTION 64
A 75-year-old male patient diagnosed with Alzheimer’s disease presents with agitation and aggressive behavior. The PMHNP determines which of the following to be the best treatment option?
A. Immunotherapy B. Donepezil (Aricept) C. Haloperidol (Haldol) D. Citalopram (Celexa) or Escitalopram (Lexapro)

Assignment: Migraine Prophylaxis
Assignment: Migraine Prophylaxis
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QUESTION 19
The PMHNP is assessing a female patient who has been taking lamotrigine (Lamictal) for migraine prophylaxis. After discovering that the patient has reached the maximum dose of this medication, the PMHNP decides to change the patient’s medication to zonisamide (Zonegran). In addition to evaluating this patient’s day-to-day activities, what should the PMHNP ensure that this patient understands?
A. Monthly blood levels must be drawn. B. ECG monitoring must be done once every 3 months. C. White blood cell count must be monitored weekly. D. This medication has unwanted side effects such as sedation, lack of coordination, and drowsiness.
QUESTION 20
A patient recovering from shingles presents with tenderness and sensitivity to the upper back. He states it is bothersome to put a shirt on most days. This patient has end stage renal disease (ESRD) and is scheduled to have hemodialysis tomorrow but states that he does not know how he can lie in a recliner for 3 hours feeling this uncomfortable. What will be the PMHNP’s priority?
A. Order herpes simplex virus (HSV) antibody testing B. Order a blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine STAT C. Prescribe lidocaine 5% D. Prescribe hydromorphone (Dilaudid) 2mg
QUESTION 21
The PMHNP prescribed a patient lamotrigine (Lamictal), 25 mg by mouth daily, for nerve pain 6 months ago. The patient suddenly presents to the office with the complaint that the medication is no longer working and complains of increased pain. What action will the PMHNP most likely take?
A. Increase the dose of lamotrigine (Lamictal) to 25 mg twice daily. B. Ask if the patient has been taking the medication as prescribed. C. Order gabapentin (Neurontin), 100 mg three times a day, because lamotrigine (Lamictal) is no longer working for this patient. D. Order a complete blood count (CBC) to assess for an infection.
QUESTION 22
An elderly woman with a history of Alzheimer’s disease, coronary artery disease, and myocardial infarction had a fall at home 3 months ago that resulted in her receiving an open reduction internal fixation. While assessing this patient, the PMHNP is made aware that the patient continues to experience mild to moderate pain. What is the PMHNP most likely to do?
A. Order an X-ray because it is possible that she dislocated her hip. B. Order ibuprofen (Motrin) because she may need long-term treatment and chronic pain is not uncommon. C. Order naproxen (Naprosyn) because she may have arthritis and chronic pain is not uncommon. D. Order Morphine and physical therapy.
QUESTION 23
The PMHNP is assessing a 49-year-old male with a history of depression, post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), alcoholism with malnutrition, diabetes mellitus type 2, and hypertension. His physical assessment is unremarkable with the exception of peripheral edema bilaterally to his lower extremities and a chief complaint of pain with numbness and tingling to each leg 5/10. The PMHNP starts this patient on a low dose of doxepin (Sinequan). What is the next action that must be taken by the PMHNP?
A. Orders liver function tests. B. Educate the patient on avoiding grapefruits when taking this medication. C. Encourage this patient to keep fluids to 1500 ml/day until the swelling subsides. D. Order a BUN/Creatinine test.
QUESTION 24
The PMHNP is evaluating a 30-year-old female patient who states that she notices pain and a drastic change in mood before the start of her menstrual cycle. The patient states that she has tried diet and lifestyle changes but nothing has worked. What will the PMHNP most likely do? A. Prescribe Estrin FE 24 birth control B. Prescribe ibuprofen (Motrin), 800 mg every 8 hours as needed for pain C. Prescribe desvenlafaxine (Pristiq), 50 mg daily D. Prescribe risperidone (Risperdal), 2 mg TID

Discuss: Drive and Running Behavior
Discuss: Drive and Running Behavior
FIGURE 8.1 Intensity of Drive and Running Behavior. Effects of deprivation time on mean log time to run a 10-unit T maze for a water reward by water-deprived rats. Note the increase in running time immediately after the 22-2 hour shift and the decrease in running time after the 2-22 hour shift.
Source: From “The Effect of Drive Level on the Maze Performance of the White Rat” by B. Hillman et al., 1953, Journal of Comparative and Physiological Psychology, 46, figure 1. Copyright 1953 by American Psychological Association. Reprinted by permission.
food on food-deprived days and to choose the alley leading to water on water-deprived days. Thus, hunger drive stimuli became associated with the location of food, and thirst drive stimuli became associated with the location of water. A third characteristic of drive is that it motivates the individual to behave in order to reduce its intensity. Hull considered drive to be unpleasant. In fact, he felt that “Bentham’s concept of pain is equated substantially to our own [Hull’s] concept of need” (Hull, 1952, p. 341). Recall from Chapter 2 that Bentham (1789/1970) is the utilitarian philosopher who claimed that people are under the governance of two masters: pain and pleasure. Humans are motivated to reduce drive—that is, to get rid of any painful or unpleasant feeling. Since drive is characterized as being painful, then the behavior that reduces it will be more likely to occur. Eating reduces an unpleasant hunger drive, and drinking reduces an unpleasant thirst drive. The importance of Hull’s drive con- cept is that drive motivates the voluntary behavior that restores homeostasis. Drive moti- vates an individual to reduce feelings of hunger, thirst, or internal temperature deviation, thus maximizing the conditions necessary for well-being and life.
Characteristics of Psychological Needs The definition of psychological needs parallels that of physiological needs since both center on the notion of a deficit. In the case of a psychological need, there is a deficit between a per- son’s desired or set point level and the current level of the matching incentive or behavior.
Chronic or Temporary Psychological Needs. Psychological needs are chronic if a per- son desires some incentive or behavior of which she is habitually deprived. For example, if
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C H A P T E R E I G H T / Drives, Needs, and Awareness 187
a person has a large appetite for social inclusion then she might be chronically unsatisfied if the current social environment does not provide enough social inclusion. A person might have an enduring need for cognition if she is consistently deprived of her daily opportunity to solve Sudoku or crossword puzzles. However, psychological needs can also be temporary and are aroused occasionally. In this case, it is as if psychological needs are preexisting but remain dormant until aroused by the appropriate stimulus situation. When aroused, the psy- chological need serves as a motive that reminds a person of the discrepancy between his current situation and a final desired state (McClelland et al., 1953). Redintegration describes the process by which a need is activated or restored (Murray, 1938). For example, a safety need is aroused or redintegrated when an unlighted parking lot late at night is discrepant from a person’s ideal level of lighting. The aroused safety need produces a hurried pace to reach one’s car and drive away. The need to achieve is activated or redintegrated by the sight of a textbook, reminding a student of the discrepancy between his current knowledge and the amount necessary to succeed on an exam. The resulting need state or achievement motive leads to studying a textbook to reduce the discrepancy. Stimuli activate, redinte- grate, or restore psychological needs because they have been associated with the arousal characteristics of needs in the past (McClelland et al., 1953). To illustrate, the presence of people arouses the need for affiliation, and textbooks arouse the need to achieve, because in the past these stimuli have been associated with feelings of affiliation and achievement.
Using Needs to Explain Behavior. A final consideration involves demonstrating the relationship between need intensity and need-satisfying behavior. Do people differ in their intensities of psychological needs? How is a person’s level of need intensity measured? These questions cannot be answered by measuring behavior that is instrumental in satis- fying the need, since this behavior could have resulted from other factors. For example, if a person’s residence hall room is neat and tidy, does that mean she has a high need for or- der (Murray, 1938)? Or could it be she is just expecting company or likes being able to find things easily? If the concept of need is used to explain behavior, then two steps are neces- sary: measuring need intensity and showing its relationship with behavior satisfying the need. First, psychologists measure need level with a valid scale or questionnaire. Just as the number on the bathroom scale reflects the amount a person weighs, the score on a need scale reflects the intensity of a need. Second, need scale scores must correlate with be- havior instrumental in satisfying the need. Thus, when need is high, there must be a greater amount of need-satisfying behavior than when need is low. For example, the greater a per- son’s measured need for affiliation, the more friends he visits and telephones (Lansing & Heyns, 1959). In the next few sections, we will examine how various psychological needs are measured and the relationship between specific needs and behavior.
Maslow’s Theory of Needs Are all needs equally important or are some more potent than others? One view is that there are categories of needs that differ in their potency to motivate behavior.
Abraham Maslow (1970) constructed a hierarchy of needs: physiological, safety, belongingness, esteem, and self-actualization. These needs are organized into five tiers whereby the lower tier of needs is more likely to be acted on first, followed by needs at higher tiers (see Figure 8.2). Notice that in ascending the hierarchy, needs have been
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188 P A R T T H R E E / Psychological Properties of Motivation
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