Nursing

Assignment: Treatments For Urolithiasis
Assignment: Treatments For Urolithiasis
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9. All of the following are treatments for urolithiasis except:
I. Large volumes of water II. Lithotripsy III. Pain medications IV. Ultrasound
a. I and II b. II and III c. I and III d. I, II, and III e. All of the above
10 Functions of the nephron include all of the following except
A. Reabsorption of urea nitrogen B. Fluid homeostasis C. Maintaining electrolyte balance
D. Regulation of blood pressure E. Maintaining blood pH
Chapter 17: Female Reproductive System
1. A 24-year-old female presents to the clinic with complaints of headache, a rash on her palms, soles, and mucus membranes. Which of the following is a likely diagnosis?
A. secondary syphilis B. Chlamydia C. Gonorrhea D. Pelvic inflammatory disease
2. A 22-year-old female presents to the clinic with complaints of vaginal itching and pain, and thick cottage cheese like discharge. Which of the following is a likely diagnosis?
A. Trichomoniasis B. Candidiasis C. Herpes simplex virus D. Human papillomavirus
3. Meigs syndrome is the occurrence of ascites and right-sided hydrothorax associated with which of the following:
A. Teratoma B. Leiomyoma C. Fibrothecoma D. Leukoplakia
4. A 71-year-old woman who has never been pregnant and always had normal Pap tests notices spotty vaginal bleeding. Work-up is performed and a biopsy reveals cancer. Which is she most likely to have?
A. Stage I endometrial carcinoma B. Stage IV cervical carcinoma C. Stage I ovarian cancer
D. Stage III endometrial carcinoma E. Stage I vulvar carcinoma
5. A 36-year-old woman, following an evaluation for infertility, is told that her fallopian tubes have excessive scar tissue, thus not allowing the ovum to travel to the uterus at the time of ovulation. This is most likely due to remote:
A. Ovarian cyst B. Herpes infection C. Gonorrhea D. Trichomoniasis E. Syphilis
6. A 56-year-old, otherwise perfectly healthy woman comes to the doctor complaining of vulvar itching. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
A. Trichomoniasis B. Lichen simplex chronicus C. Squamous cell carcinoma
D. Herpes simplex virus E. Candidiasis
7. A 26-year-old woman who is otherwise healthy and has normal menstrual cycles complains of diffuse pelvic pain that is worse during menstruation. She also has recently developed pain with defecation and sexual intercourse. An ultrasound reveals a large cyst on one of her ovaries. This cyst is likely
A. A malignant serous carcinoma B. Pseudomyxoma peritonei C. A teratoma
D. An endometrioma E. A benign fibroma
8. A 36-year-old woman, following an evaluation for infertility, is told that her fallopian tubes have excessive scar tissue, thus not allowing the ovum to travel to the uterus at the time of ovulation. This is most likely due to remote:
A. Ovarian cyst B. Herpes infection C. Gonorrhea D. Trichomoniasis E. Syphilis
9. A 45-year-old woman is being evaluated for dysfunctional uterine bleeding. Pelvic examination reveals a large, lumpy uterus. According to the patient’s medical record, a large, lumpy uterus was noted at her last pelvic examination five years earlier. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Uterine carcinoma B. Leiomyomata C. Cervical carcinoma D. Pregnancy
E. Polycystic ovary disease
10. An obese, 28-year-old with hirsutism, irregular menstrual cycles, and a history of gonorrhea infection is being evaluated for infertility. Which of the following conditions is least likely to be contributing to her infertility?
A. Pelvic inflammatory disease B. Endometriosis C. Obesity D. Leiomyomata
E. Polycystic ovary disease
Chapter 18: Breast
1. Which of the following are risk factors for the development of breast cancer?
I. Exogenous estrogen therapy II. Early menarche III. Late menopause IV. Not breast-feeding
V. Obesity
A. I, III, and V B. II, III, and IV C. II, III, and V D. I, II, and III E. All of the above

Discussion: Papillated Dry Lesion
Discussion: Papillated Dry Lesion
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3. A patient presents at the clinic with large, raised, papillated, dry lesion on the plantar surface of the left foot. He says he has been watching it grow for a while and it has been painful from time to time. This growth is cause by
a. S. aureus b. P. acnes c. Human papillomavirus d. all of these
4. A patient reports to the clinic complaining of patchy, red, raised edematous areas that itch. The patient does not currently have any, but states it happens periodically, and they last for about a day before fading. The clinician diagnoses the patient with urticaria. Which of the following is responsible for these lesions?
a. Histamine release b. Malassezia furfur yeast exposure c. Long exposure to sunlight d. Emotional stress
5. A 19 year old woman is seen by a dermatologist for red crusty lesions on her neck wrists and the backs of her knees. Other members of her family have a similar affliction. Which of these is most likely the correct diagnosis?
a. impetigo b. acne c. contact dermatitis d. eczema
6. A 35 year old man is treated by UV light for a chronic skin rash characterized by patches of thickened skin with silver scales on the knees and elbows. Which condition is mostly his problem?
a. urticarial b. seborrheic keratosis c. psoriasis d. atopic dermatitis
7. Mrs. Collins was born with a rare condition called xeroderma pigmentosum. Which of these activates should she avoid?
a. using a tanning bed b. swimming in an indoor pool c. swimming in salt water d. playing basketball
8. Uncle Fred returns from the dermatologist with news that he has skin cancer but he can’t remember what type. You examine the lesion to find it is a papule with an ulcer in the center. What type of skin cancer does Uncle Fred heave?
a. melanoma b. basal cell carcinoma c. squamous cell carcinoma d. nevus
9. During your shift at the rural health clinic a young boy is brought in by his mother. The child has a red, scaly rash formed into rings in his hair. What is the most probably diagnosis?
a. Tinea cruris b. Tinea pedis c. Tinea capitis d. Tinea barbae
10. Mr. Akers is a 68 year old male in good health. He comes to the clinic complaining of severe pain, burning sensation, and numbness but itchy rash. The rash is located at his waist and is in a belt-like shape on the right side. The rash is beginning to scab. Looking at his medical history you note that he had chicken pox as a child as well as measles, rubella and mumps. What is the most probable diagnosis?
a. dermatitis b. shingles c. acne d. epidermal necrosysis
Chapter 21: Bones and Joints
1. Concerned parents bring their infant to the clinic saying the child has been crying inconsolably for hours. Physical exam reveals the infant cries harder when palpating the clavicular region, and note the infant has blue tinged sclera. X-ray reveals a broken clavicle. The parents can offer no explanation. Which of the following is a likely diagnosis?
A. Marfan Syndrome B. Osteogenesis imperfecta C. Child abuse D. Achodroplasia
2. A patient presents to the emergency department with complaint of sudden chest pain and shortness of breath. Physical exam reveals a tall, thin male with pectus excavatum (a sunken sternum). Which of the following is a likely diagnosis?
a. Spontaneous pneumothorax in a patient with Marfan syndrome
b. Spontaneous pneumothorax in a patient with achondroplasia
c. Spontaneous pneumothorax in a patient with osteogenesis imperfecta
d. Spontaneous pneumothorax in a patient with torticollis
3. A 48-year-old male presents to the clinic with complaints of joint stiffness. X-rays reveals new bone formation with lipping. Which of the following is a likely diagnosis?
a. Osteomalacia b. Rheumatoid arthritis c. Degenerative arthritis d. Gout
4. Baby Jonie is born with one foot turned equino, varus, metatarsus adductus and cavus deformity. She has
a. dysplasia of the hip b. clubfoot c. torticollis d. achondroplasia

Industrial And Organizational Psychology Assessment
Industrial And Organizational Psychology Assessment
Prior to beginning work on this discussion, read Chapter 11 in the textbook, the article by Baez (2013), the assigned chapters in the , and view the video .
For this discussion, you will use the document to compare two assessment instruments used in industrial and organizational (I-O) psychology assessment. Based on the information in your text and assigned readings, select and evaluate two psychological tests used in industrial-organizational psychological assessment. You may not evaluate any of the tests you evaluated in the Week Four Applications in Personality Testing discussion.
In addition to the text, locate a minimum of two appropriate scholarly and/or peer-reviewed sources to aid you in the analysis of the psychometric properties of the instruments based on published data. In your initial post, provide the names of the two tests you evaluated, and attach your completed . You must maintain the original format of the document and include the textbook and two additional scholarly and/or peer-reviewed sources in the references section.
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CHECKLIST IS ADDED, IT HAS TO BE COMPLETED.
PLEASE FOLLOW DIRECTIONS
DUE 8/29/2018 PLEASE FOLLOW DIRECTIONS
Prior to beginning work on this discussion, read Chapter 11 in the textbook, the article by Baez (2013), the assigned chapters in the , and view the video .
For this discussion, you will use the document to compare two assessment instruments used in industrial and organizational (I-O) psychology assessment. Based on the information in your text and assigned readings, select and evaluate two psychological tests used in industrial-organizational psychological assessment. You may not evaluate any of the tests you evaluated in the Week Four Applications in Personality Testing discussion.
In addition to the text, locate a minimum of two appropriate scholarly and/or peer-reviewed sources to aid you in the analysis of the psychometric properties of the instruments based on published data. In your initial post, provide the names of the two tests you evaluated, and attach your completed . You must maintain the original format of the document and include the textbook and two additional scholarly and/or peer-reviewed sources in the references section.
CHECKLIST IS ADDED, IT HAS TO BE COMPLETED.
PLEASE FOLLOW DIRECTIONS

Discussed Matters Of Truth And Consistency
Discussed Matters Of Truth And Consistency
In M1: Assignment 2, you identified and explained the weakest or strongest argument in a set of articles. You identified the premises and conclusions, discussed whether or not an inference was warranted, and discussed matters of truth and consistency within the specified subject.
Review your work in M1: Assignment 2 where you analyzed the sets of articles assigned to you.
Using these articles, complete the following:
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Construct an original “engulf and devour” argument.
Or
Develop a “counterexample” argument.
You may use the M1: Assignment 2 readings as sources for evidence and facts. Be sure to do the following:
Use additional references to support your arguments and provide evidence as needed.
Use key language and phrases suggested in your textbook.
If you have difficulty getting started use the “quick start” techniques listed in the textbook.
Write your initial response in 1–2 paragraphs. Apply APA standards to citation of sources.
In M1: Assignment 2, you identified and explained the weakest or strongest argument in a set of articles. You identified the premises and conclusions, discussed whether or not an inference was warranted, and discussed matters of truth and consistency within the specified subject.
Review your work in M1: Assignment 2 where you analyzed the sets of articles assigned to you.
Using these articles, complete the following:
Construct an original “engulf and devour” argument.
Or
Develop a “counterexample” argument.
You may use the M1: Assignment 2 readings as sources for evidence and facts. Be sure to do the following:
Use additional references to support your arguments and provide evidence as needed.
Use key language and phrases suggested in your textbook.
If you have difficulty getting started use the “quick start” techniques listed in the textbook.
Write your initial response in 1–2 paragraphs. Apply APA standards to citation of sources.
You may use the M1: Assignment 2 readings as sources for evidence and facts. Be sure to do the following:
Use additional references to support your arguments and provide evidence as needed.
Use key language and phrases suggested in your textbook.
If you have difficulty getting started use the “quick start” techniques listed in the textbook.
Write your initial response in 1–2 paragraphs. Apply APA standards to citation of sources.
In M1: Assignment 2, you identified and explained the weakest or strongest argument in a set of articles. You identified the premises and conclusions, discussed whether or not an inference was warranted, and discussed matters of truth and consistency within the specified subject.
Review your work in M1: Assignment 2 where you analyzed the sets of articles assigned to you.

Assignment: Genetic Mutation
Assignment: Genetic Mutation
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5. Her twin brother Joseph is born with a genetic mutation of the FGRF 3. He has
a. dysplasia of the hip b. clubfoot c. torticollis d. achondroplasia
6. Andrew is 10 years old and loves to climb trees. Andrew fell while climbing his favorite magnolia tree and broke his ulna. The x-ray reveals that the injured ulna is broken into 4 small pieces. What type of fracture is this?
a. incomplete b. complete c. comminuted d. compression
7. Four days later Andrew’s great grandmother, Memaw, tripped over her kitty, Precious, fell, and broke the neck of her right femur. Given her age, which of the following probably contributed to Memaw’s fracture?
a. osteomyelitis b. osteoporosis c. osteomalacia d. septic arthritis
8. Michelle is taking a conducting class at ETBU. Her professor suggests that she video herself while conducting. Michelle notices that she is awkwardly bent at the hips and shoulders. Which problem of the spine is the most likely cause of her posture?
a. kyphosis b. compression fracture of vertebra c. herniated intervertebral disc d. scoliosis
9. Rheumatoid factor is an antibody directed against
a. the pannus b. immunoglobulin G c. the synovium d. joint cartilage
Chapter 22: Muscles and Nerves
1. A difference between Duchenne Dystrophy and myotonic dystrophy is:
Duchenne dystrophy is an autosomal dominant disease, while myotonic dystrophy is sex-linked
Myotonic dystrophy is an autosomal dominant disease, while Duchenne dystrophy is sex-linked
Duchenne is characterized by progressive weakness
Myotonic dystrophy features the replacement of muscle by adipose and fibrous tissue
2. In which disease are antibodies against the acetylcholine receptor found in serum?
Guillain-Barre B. Werdnig-Hoffman C. Myasthenia gravis D. Rhabdomyosarcoma
3. A patient presents to the emergency department with new onset paralysis in the peripheral limbs. The patient reports they recovered from a viral illness the previous week. Which of the following is a likely diagnosis?
A. Guillain-Barre B. Werdnig-Hoffman C. Myasthenia gravis D. Rhabdomyosarcoma
4. A patient presents to the clinic with complaint of weakness, pain, and tenderness. Laboratory exam reveals elevated creatine kinase levels, and a muscle biopsy reveals lymphocytic infiltration of muscle fibers. Which of the following diagnoses is likely?
A. Guillain-Barre B. Polymyositis C. Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis D. Myasthenia Gravis
5. A patient presents to the emergency department with new onset paralysis in the peripheral limbs. The patient reports they recovered from a viral illness the previous week. Which of the following is a likely diagnosis?
a. Guillain-Barre b. Werdnig-Hoffman c. Myasthenia gravis d. Rhabdomyosarcoma
6. A patient presents to the clinic with complaint of weakness, pain, and tenderness. Laboratory exam reveals elevated creatine kinase levels, and a muscle biopsy reveals lymphocytic infiltration of muscle fibers. Which of the following diagnoses is likely?
a. Guillain-Barre b. Polymyositis c. Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis d. Myasthenia Gravis
7. Your nephew Justin has been diagnosed with pseudohypertrophic muscular dystrophy. Which type of muscular dystrophy is he most likely to have?
a. Duchenne b. myotonic c. congenital d. neurogenic
8. Justin has a twin sister, Caroline. Is she likely to succumb to the same condition as Justin?
a. yes b. no c. maybe d. depends on what she eats
9. Lexi strained her gastrocnemius muscle while chasing Jeremy around the student center. What type of injury is this?
a. joint injury b. pulled muscle c. pulled ligament d. broken bone
10. Fernando comes into the clinic complaining of muscle weakness in his shoulders, soreness, and pain since chopping a cord of wood. Blood serum studies show normal CBC with normal distribution of WBC. Serum creatine kinase is elevated but all other blood chemistries are normal. You decided to do an electromyographic study . The results are “asynchronous spontaneous activity” in the right shoulder. Which is most likely the source of his discomfort?
a. myopathic damage b. neurogenic damage c. myotonia d. none of these

Three Stages of Sexual Response
Three Stages of Sexual Response
Complete the template provided by comparing and contrasting the Masters and Johnson Human Sexual Response Cycle to the Kaplan’s Three Stages of Sexual Response.
Include the following in the chart:
A detailed description of the phases in both models of sexual response.
The differences and similarities between male and female sexual responses noted in each of the two models.
MUST DO THE DOC THAT IS ATTACHED ON
HAS TO PASS TURN IT IN WITH LESS THAN 5%
Language Structure
What makes the human species special? There are two basic hypotheses about
why people are intellectually different from other species. In the past few chapters,
I indulged my favorite theory, which is that we have unmatched abilities to solve
problems and reason about our world, owing in large part to the enormous development
of our prefrontal cortices. However, there is another theory at least as popular in cognitive
science, which is that humans are special because they alone possess a language.
This chapter and the next will analyze in more detail what language is, how people
process language, and what makes human language so special. This chapter will focus
primarily on the nature of language in general, whereas the next chapter will contain
more detailed analyses of how language is processed. We will consider some of the
basic linguistic ideas about the structure of language and evidence for the psychological
reality of these ideas, as well as research and speculation about the relation between
language and thought. We will also look at the research on language acquisition.
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Much
of the evidence both for and against claims about the uniqueness of human language
comes from research on the way in which children learn the structure of language.
In this chapter, we will answer the questions: • What does the field of linguistics tell us about how language is processed? • What distinguishes human language from the communication systems of other
species? • How does language influence the nature of human thought? • How are children able to acquire a language?
•Language and the Brain
The human brain has features strongly associated with language. For almost all
of the 92% of people who are right-handed, language is strongly lateralized in
the left hemisphere. About half of the 8% of people who are left-handed still
have language left lateralized. So 96% of the population has language largely
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in the left hemisphere. Findings from studies with split-brain patients (see
Chapter 1) have indicated that the right hemisphere has only the most rudimentary
language abilities. It was once thought that the left hemisphere was
larger, particularly in areas taking part in language processing, and that this
greater size accounted for the greater linguistic abilities associated with the left
hemisphere. However, neuroimaging techniques have suggested that the differences
in size are negligible, and researchers are now looking to see whether
there are differences in neural connectivity or organization (Gazzaniga, Ivry, &
Mangun, 2002) in the left hemisphere. It remains largely a mystery what differences
between the left and the right hemispheres could account for why language
is so strongly left lateralized.
Certain regions of the left hemisphere are specialized for language, and
these are illustrated in Figure 12.1. These areas were initially identified in studies
of patients who suffered aphasias (losses of language function) as a consequence
of stroke. The first such area was discovered by Paul Broca, the French surgeon
who, in 1861, examined the brain of such a patient after the patient’s death (the
brain is still preserved in a Paris museum). This patient was basically incapable
of spoken speech, although he understood much of what was spoken to him.
He had a large region of damage in a prefrontal area that came to be known
as Broca’s area. As can be seen in Figure 12.1, it is next to the motor region that
controls the mouth. Shortly thereafter, Carl Wernicke, a German physician,
identified patients with severe deficits in understanding speech who had damage
in a region in the superior temporal cortex posterior to the primary auditory
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cortex. This area came to be known as Wernicke’s area. Parietal regions
close to Wernicke’s area (the supramarginal gyrus and angular gyrus) also have
also been found to be important to language.
Two of the classic aphasias, now known as Broca’s aphasia and Wernicke’s
aphasia, are associated with damage to these two regions. Chapter 1 gave
Brain Structures
Broca’s area
Wernicke’s area
Supramarginal gyrus
Angular gyrus
Motor face area
Primary auditory area
FIGURE 12.1 A lateral view of
the left hemisphere. Some of
the brain areas implicated in
language are in boldface type.
(From Dronkers, Redfern, & Knight, 2000.)
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examples of the kinds of speech problems suffered by patients with these two
aphasias. The severity of the damage determines whether patients with Broca’s
aphasia will be unable to generate almost any speech (like Broca’s original
patient) or be capable of generating meaningful but ungrammatical speech.
Patients with Wernicke’s aphasia, in addition to having problems with comprehension,

Assignment: Termites And Pacific Lampreys
Assignment: Termites And Pacific Lampreys
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This week our discussion is focused on animal evolution. For your primary post, respond to one of the following three topics. Also, please reply to at least one fellow student on any topic.
Topic 1
: Population Distribution of Termites in a Savanna. Watch the video (1) describing Corina Tarnita’s research on the spacing of termite mounds in savanna ecosystems, and then address the following:
(a) What were Tarnita’s findings about the spacing of termite mounds?
(b) What does Tarnita think is the main factor that governs the spatial distribution of the termite mounds?
(c) How do the termite mounds benefit other organisms on the savanna?
Topic 2
: Pacific Lampreys. Watch the video about Pacific Lampreys (2)*, then address the following:
(a) Where do Pacific lampreys fall in the taxonomy of vertebrates?
(b) What challenges do Pacific lamprey populations face?
(c) Why are Native American tribes of the Northwest concerned about them? (Please note: take care not to confuse the Pacific lamprey (described in the video) with the Sea Lamprey, which is a completely different species that is considered an invasive species in the Great Lakes).
Topic 3 [article]: Supporting the Energy Needs of a Large Brain. As discussed in the article by Zimmer (3)*, brain tissue is energetically expensive. For a species to evolve a large brain, it may need to make certain adjustments to ensure that enough energy is available to support brain function. Zimmer discusses various hypotheses about such adjustments in the human line of descent. Explain one of these adjustments.
References (in Strayer Writing Standards format).
HHMI Biointeractive (2015, November 11). Analyzing patterns in the savanna landscape. [Video]. Retrieved from
U.S. Fish & Wildlife Service. (2012). Taking the initiative to conserve Pacific Lamprey. [Video]. Retrieved from
Carl Zimmer, July/August 2011. The brain. Discover, 32 (6), 18-19.
Note: If you have trouble with the link to Carl Zimmer’s article, the following link is to a file with the text of the article:

Discuss: ACA’s Code of Ethics
Discuss: ACA’s Code of Ethics
In this Assignment, you will consider the ACA’s Code of Ethics and how these practices impact assessment. This professional code identifies your responsibilities and the practices you must adhere to for the benefit of your clients, your colleagues, and your community.
To Prepare:
Review the ACA’s Code of Ethics website found in this module’s Learning Resources and consider how they apply to your professional development
Review and use the Ethical Decision-Making Model from the course text: Exercise 2.2 Making Ethical Decisions (p. 37) for this Assignment.
Assignment:
–Review the five cases
-Select two of the situations and answer the questions provided in the course text from the Ethical Decision-Making Model.
-In one page each, identify the cases you selected and include your responses to the questions on the second page. (Note: Two pages total).
-On page 3, add a summary paragraph or two that shares your personal challenges with addressing the ethical issues in the assignment.
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References:
Neukrug, E. S., & Fawcett, R. C. (2015). Chapter 2: Ethical, legal, and professional issues in assessment. In The essentials of Testing and Assessment: A practical guide for counselors, social workers, and psychologists (pp. 21-41). Stamford, CN: Cengage Learning.
Neukrug, E. S., & Fawcett, R. C. (2015). Appendix B: Assessment sections of ACA’s and APA’s Code of Ethics. In The essentials of Testing and Assessment: A practical guide for counselors, social workers, and psychologists (p.308). Stamford, CN: Cengage Learning.

Discussion: Mitosis And Meiosis
Discussion: Mitosis And Meiosis
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INSTRUCTIONS:
On your own and without assistance, complete this Lab 5Answer Sheet electronically and submit it via the Assignments Folder by the date listed intheCourse Schedule (under Syllabus).
· To conduct your laboratory exercises, use the Laboratory Manual located under Course Content. Read the introduction and the directions for each exercise/experiment carefully before completing the exercises/experiments and answering the questions. Discussion: Mitosis And Meiosis
· Save your Lab 5Answer Sheet in the following format: LastName_Lab5 (e.g., Smith_Lab5).
· You should submit your document as a Word (.doc or .docx) or Rich Text Format (.rtf) file for best compatibility. Discussion: Mitosis And Meiosis
Pre-Lab Questions
Compare and contrast mitosis and meiosis.
What major event occurs during interphase?
Experiment 1: Following Chromosomal DNA Movement through Meiosis
In this experiment, you will model the movement of the chromosomes through meiosis I and II to create gametes.
Materials
2 Sets of Different Colored Pop-it® Beads (32 of each – these may be any color)
8 5-Holed Pop-it® Beads (used as centromeres)
Procedure:
Part 1: Modeling Meiosis without Crossing Over
As prophase I begins, the replicated chromosomes coil and condense…
Build a pair of replicated, homologous chromosomes. 10 beads should be used to create each individual sister chromatid (20 beads per chromosome pair). Two five-holed beads represent each centromere. To do this…
Figure 3: Bead set-up. The blue beads represent one pair of sister chromatids and the black beads represent a second pair of sister chromatids. The black and blue pair are homologous.
Start with 20 beads of the same color to create your first sister chromatid pair. Five beads must be snapped together for each of the four different strands. Two strands create the first chromatid, and two strands create the second chromatid with a 5-holed bead at the center of each chromatid. This creates an “I” shape.
Connect the “I” shaped sister chromatids by the 5-holed beads to create an “X” shape.
Repeat this process using 20 new beads (of a different color) to create the second sister chromatid pair.
Assemble a second pair of replicated sister chromatids; this time using 12 beads, instead of 20, per pair (six beads per each complete sister chromatid strand).
Pair up the homologous chromosome pairs created in Step 1 and 2. DO NOT SIMULATE CROSSING OVER IN THIS TRIAL. You will simulate crossing over in Part 2.
Configure the chromosomes as they would appear in each of the stages of meiotic division (prophase I and II, metaphase I and II, anaphase I and II, telophase I and II, and cytokinesis).
Diagram the corresponding images for each stage in the sections titled “Trial 1 – Meiotic Division Beads Diagram”. Be sure to indicate the number of chromosomes present in each phase.
Figure 4: Second set of replicated chromosomes.
Disassemble the beads used in Part 1. You will need to recycle these beads for a second meiosis trial in Steps 8 – 13.
Part 1 – Meiotic Division Beads Diagram
Prophase I
Metaphase I
Anaphase I
Telophase I
Prophase II
Metaphase II
Anaphase II
Telophase II
Cytokinesis
Part 2: Modeling Meiosis with Crossing Over
Build a pair of replicated, homologous chromosomes. 10 beads should be used to create each individual sister chromatid (20 beads per chromosome pair). Two five-holed beads represent each centromere. To do this…
a. Start with 20 beads of the same color to create your first sister chromatid pair. Five beads must be snapped together for each of the four different strands. Two strands create the first chromatid, and two strands create the second chromatid with a 5-holed bead at the center of each chromatid. This creates an “I” shape.
Connect the “I” shaped sister chromatids by the 5-holed beads to create an “X” shape.
Repeat this process using 20 new beads (of a different color) to create the second sister chromatid pair.
Assemble a second pair of replicated sister chromatids; this time using 12 beads, instead of 20, per pair (six beads per each complete sister chromatid strand). Snap each of the four pieces into a new five-holed bead to complete the set up.
Pair up the homologous chromosomes created in Step 8 and 9.
SIMULATE CROSSING OVER. To do this, bring the two homologous pairs of sister chromatids together (creating the chiasma) and exchange an equal number of beads between the two. This will result in chromatids of the same original length, there will now be new combinations of chromatid colors.
Configure the chromosomes as they would appear in each of the stages of meiotic division (prophase I and II, metaphase I and II, anaphase I and II, telophase I and II, and cytokinesis).
Diagram the corresponding images for each stage in the section titled “Trial 2 – Meiotic Division Beads Diagram”. Be sure to indicate the number of chromosomes present in each cell for each phase. Also, indicate how the crossing over affected the genetic content in the gametes from Part1 versus Part 2.
Part 2 – Meiotic Division Beads Diagram:
Prophase I
Metaphase I
Anaphase I
Telophase I
Prophase II
Metaphase II
Anaphase II
Telophase II
Cytokinesis
Post-Lab Questions
1. What is the ploidy of the DNA at the end of meiosis I? What about at the end of meiosis II?
2. How are meiosis I and meiosis II different?
3. Why do you use non-sister chromatids to demonstrate crossing over?
4. What combinations of alleles could result from a crossover between BD and bd chromosomes?
5. How many chromosomes were present when meiosis I started?
6. How many nuclei are present at the end of meiosis II? How many chromosomes are in each?
7. Identify two ways that meiosis contributes to genetic recombination.
8. Why is it necessary to reduce the number of chromosomes in gametes, but not in other cells?
9. Blue whales have 44 chromosomes in every cell. Determine how many chromosomes you would expect to find in the following:
Sperm Cell:
Egg Cell:
Daughter Cell from Mitosis:
Daughter Cell from Meiosis II:
10. Research and find a disease that is caused by chromosomal mutations. When does the mutation occur? What chromosomes are affected? What are the consequences?
11. Diagram what would happen if sexual reproduction took place for four generations using diploid (2n) cells.
Experiment 2: The Importance of Cell Cycle Control
Some environmental factors can cause genetic mutations which result in a lack of proper cell cycle control (mitosis). When this happens, the possibility for uncontrolled cell growth occurs. In some instances, uncontrolled growth can lead to tumors, which are often associated with cancer, or other biological diseases.
In this experiment, you will review some of the karyotypic differences which can be observed when comparing normal, controlled cell growth and abnormal, uncontrolled cell growth. A karyotype is an image of the complete set of diploid chromosomes in a single cell.
Procedure
Materials
*Computer Access
*Internet Access
*You Must Provide
Begin by constructing a hypothesis to explain what differences you might observe when comparing the karyotypes of human cells which experience normal cell cycle control versus cancerous cells (which experience abnormal, or a lack of, cell cycle control). Record your hypothesis in Post-Lab Question 1.
Note: Be sure to include what you expect to observe, and why you think you will observe these features. Think about what you know about cancerous cell growth to help construct this information
Go online to find some images of abnormal karyotypes, and normal karyotypes. The best results will come from search terms such as “abnormal karyotype”, “HeLa cells”, “normal karyotype”, “abnormal chromosomes”, etc. Be sure to use dependable resources which have been peer-reviewed
Identify at least five abnormalities in the abnormal images. Then, list and draw each image in the Data section at the end of this experiment. Do these abnormalities agree with your original hypothesis?
Hint: It may be helpful to count the number of chromosomes, count the number of pairs, compare the sizes of homologous chromosomes, look for any missing or additional genetic markers/flags, etc.
Data
Post-Lab Questions
1. Record your hypothesis from Step 1 in the Procedure section here.
2. What do your results indicate about cell cycle control?
3. Suppose a person developed a mutation in a somatic cell which diminishes the performance of the body’s natural cell cycle control proteins. This mutation resulted in cancer, but was effectively treated with a cocktail of cancer-fighting techniques. Is it possible for this person’s future children to inherit this cancer-causing mutation? Be specific when you explain why or why not.
4. Why do cells which lack cell cycle control exhibit karyotypes which look physically different than cells with normal cell cycle.
5. What are HeLa cells? Why are HeLa cells appropriate for this experiment?

Assignment: Chronic Insomnia
Assignment: Chronic Insomnia
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QUESTION 43
The PMHNP is caring for a patient with chronic insomnia who is worried about pharmacological treatment because the patient does not want to experience dependence. Which pharmacological treatment approach will the PMHNP likely select for this patient for a limited duration, while searching and correcting the underlying pathology associated with the insomnia?
A. Serotonergic hypnotics B. Antihistamines C. Benzodiazepine hypnotics D. Non-benzodiazepine hypnotics
QUESTION 44
The PMHNP is caring for a patient with chronic insomnia who would benefit from taking hypnotics. The PMHNP wants to prescribe the patient a drug with an ultra-short half-life (1–3 hours). Which drug will the PMHNP prescribe?
A. Flurazepam (Dalmane) B. Estazolam (ProSom) C. Triazolam (Halcion) D. Zolpidem CR (Ambien)
QUESTION 45
The PMHNP is attempting to treat a patient’s chronic insomnia and wishes to start with an initial prescription that has a half-life of approximately 1–2 hours. What is the most appropriate prescription for the PMHNP to make?
A. Triazolam (Halcion) B. Quazepam (Doral) C. Temazepam (Restoril) D. Flurazepam (Dalmane)
QUESTION 46
A patient with chronic insomnia asks the PMHNP if they can first try an over-the-counter (OTC) medication before one that needs to be prescribed to help the patient sleep. Which is the best response by the PMHNP?
A. “There are no over-the-counter medications that will help you sleep.” B. “You can choose from one of the five benzo hypnotics that are approved in the United States.” C. “You will need to ask the pharmacist for a non-benzodiazepine medicine.” D. “You can get melatonin over the counter, which will help with sleep onset.”
QUESTION 47
A patient with chronic insomnia and depression is taking trazodone (Oleptro) but complains of feeling drowsy during the day. What can the PMHNP do to reduce the drug’s daytime sedating effects?
A. Prescribe the patient an antihistamine to reverse the sedating effects B. Increasing the patient’s dose and administer it first thing in the morning C. Give the medicine at night and lower the dose D. None of the above
QUESTION 48
The PMHNP is teaching a patient with a sleep disorder about taking diphenhydramine (Benadryl). The patient is concerned about the side effects of the drug. What can the PMHNP teach the patient about this treatment approach?
A. “It can cause diarrhea.” B. “It can cause blurred vision.” C. “It can cause increased salivation.” D. “It can cause heightened cognitive effects.”